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Health Quizzes

Sleep

Depression

Acid Reflux

Allergies

Alzheimer's

Back Pain

Back To School

Brain

Breast Cancer

Cataracts

Cervical Cancer

Chemotherapy

Dental

Diabetes

Diabetes Type 1

Diabetes Type 2

Digestive System

Down Syndrome

Eye Care

Fatty Liver

Flu

Hair

Hepatitis

Hygiene

Hypertension

Immunization

Menopause

Osteoporosis

Ovarian Cancer

Parkinson's Disease

Pneumonia

Pregnancy

Prostate Cancer

Skin Cancer

STIs

Stress

Thyroid

Travel Hygiene

Vitamin D

Health Quizzes

Think you’re a health nut? Try and ace these fun quizzes with all I’ve taught you!

Choose the best answer!

Sleep

Sleep

1) Morning types who like to wake up at around dawn make up what percentage of the population?

A
40%
B
30%
C
10%
D
50%
40%

2) Evening types who like to go to bed late and wake up late account for what percentage of the population?

A
40%
B
30%
C
10%
D
50%
30%

3) To help you sleep, it is best to make your bedroom

A
Tepid
B
Warm
C
Cold
D
The temperature of your room does not matter
Cold

4) Time taken to reach physical exhaustion by athletes with less than 8 hours of sleep

A
Drops by 10-30%
B
Drops by 30-50%
C
Drops by less then 10%
D
An athletic performance is not greatly affected by lack of sleep
Drops by 10-30%

5) The percentage of the population who can survive on 5 hours a sleep or less without any impairment

A
10%
B
25%
C
5%
D
0%
0%

6) Lack of sleep can help the development of which chronic disease?

A
Diabetes
B
Cardiovascular disease
C
Hypertension
D
All of the above
All of the above

7) What causes sleep deprivation?

A
Too many lights in our room from LED electrical devices
B
Work life extends to private time
C
Increased levels of alcohol and caffeine
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) In 1942 less than 8 % of the population survived on 6 hours of sleep- what is the percentage today?

A
50%
B
40%
C
35%
D
10%
50%

9) What is sleep efficiency?

A
The amount of deep sleep
B
The amount of times that you do not awaken in your sleep
C
The percent of time that you are asleep in bed
D
None of the above
The percent of time that you are asleep in bed

10) What is Circadian timing?

A
The internal time clock that controls sleep- wake rhythms
B
The amount of time you dream
C
The amount of time you are in REM- rapid eye movement
D
None of the above
The internal time clock that controls sleep- wake rhythms

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Depression

Depression

1) What is the approximate number of people affected by depression worldwide?

A
300 million
B
10 million
C
1 billion
D
800 thousand
300 million

2) Which one of these is NOT a symptom of depression?

A
Loss of interest and pleasure
B
Temporary feelings of sadness
C
Feelings of worthlessness and guilt
D
Inability to think, concentrate or make decisions
Temporary feelings of sadness

3) How long must symptoms be present before a diagnosis of depression can be made?

A
less than 1 week
B
A whole lifetime
C
2 weeks
D
1 month
2 weeks

4) What are possible causes of depression?

A
Stress
B
Childhood trauma
C
Imbalance in brain processes
D
All of the above
All of the above

5) Which of these statements on depression is true?

A
Medication is not very effective in treating depression
B
A person with depression might not appear to be depressed
C
Depression is not a real medical condition
D
Depression only affects women
A person with depression might not appear to be depressed

6) Which of these factors does not increase the risk of depression?

A
Having at least 8 hours of sleep every night
B
A family history of depression
C
Experiencing a stressful situation e.g death, divorce, unemployment
D
Having a chronic medical condition
Having at least 8 hours of sleep every night

7) Which of these is NOT a treatment for depression?

A
Antidepressants
B
Psychotherapy
C
Brain-stimulation therapy
D
Isolation from other people
Isolation from other people

8) How can you support someone with depression?

A
Tell them to “snap out of it”
B
Stay away from them until they feel better
C
Be there for them and encourage them to seek professional help
D
Get them alcohol
Be there for them and encourage them to seek professional help

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Acid Reflux

Acid Reflux

1) Acid reflux is a very common condition which often results in a burning sensation in the chest called _________.

A
Whooping cough
B
Chest pains
C
Heartburn
D
Stomach failure
Heartburn

2) When does acid reflux occur?

A
When the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) allows stomach acids into the small intestines
B
When the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) allows stomach acids back up into the esophagus
C
When the upper esophageal sphincter (UES) allows stomach acids back up into the esophagus
D
When the upper esophageal sphincter (UES) allows stomach acids into the small intestines
When the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) allows stomach acids back up into the esophagus

3) If you have this at least twice a week, what condition might you have?

A
You might have Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
B
You might have a swollen tongue
C
You might have strep throat
D
You might have gallstones
You might have Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

4) Approximately what percentage of the population in Western countries has GERD?

A
5 to 10%
B
10 to 20%
C
20 to 30%
D
30 to 40%
20 to 30%

5) Which of these foods should you avoid if you have acid reflux?

A
Broccoli
B
Tomatoes
C
Celery
D
Pumpkin
Tomatoes

6) What should you not do after eating to avoid acid reflux?

A
Lie down
B
Watch TV
C
Take a shower
D
Yawning
Lie down

7) Which of these beverages should you avoid if you have acid reflux?

A
Caffeinated drinks such as coffee, tea, and colas
B
Carbonated drinks
C
Red wine and other alcohol
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) How does smoking contribute to acid reflux?

A
Cigarettes have acidic ingredients in them, which worsens acid reflux
B
It ruins the palate, making it hard for the tongue to process acidic flavors
C
It affects the lung, and hence the digestive process
D
The nicotine in cigarettes relaxes the LES
The nicotine in cigarettes relaxes the LES

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Allergies

Allergies

1) What is an allergy?

A
The reason why some people find wool itchy
B
A bodily reaction to a drastic change in temperature – hot or cold
C
An inappropriate immune response
D
Incomprehensibly loud sneezes in quick succession
An inappropriate immune response

2) What is the only way to recover from anaphylaxis before going to the emergency room?

A
Walking it off
B
Taking deep breaths
C
An epinephrine shot
D
Taking pre-existing medicine
An epinephrine shot

3) What is one way that allergies can be treated?

A
With medication
B
Through counselling
C
There is no treatment
D
Allergies disappear over time
With medication

4) What percent of the world’s population suffers from some kind of allergy?

A
10%
B
20%
C
30%
D
40%
30%

5) Which of these does NOT happen when anaphylaxis occurs?

A
Your muscles loosen and feel floppy
B
Your airways constrain and tighten
C
Your pulse quickens
D
You lose consciousness
Your muscles loosen and feel floppy

6) What are some symptoms of an allergy-induced asthma attack?

A
Tingling or itching in the mouth
B
Wheezing and breathlessness
C
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea or vomiting
D
Shock with a severe drop in blood pressure
Wheezing and breathlessness

7) _______________ is one of the most common triggers of seasonal allergies.

A
Sunshine
B
Plastic
C
The weather
D
Pollen
Pollen

8) Which of these tests reveal your allergies?

A
Blood test
B
Urine test
C
Deoxyribonucleic acid test
D
IQ test
Blood test

9) How can food allergies be cured?

A
Abstaining from the problem foods
B
Eating more of the problem foods to build up resistance
C
Medication
D
There is no cure
There is no cure

10) Although it could happen at any age, which age groups are at the highest risk of fatal food-induced anaphylaxis?

A
Babies and children
B
Teenagers and young adults
C
Middle-aged adults
D
The elderly
Teenagers and young adults

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Alzheimer's

Alzheimer's

1) There is a difference between Alzheimer's and Dementia

A
True
B
False
True

2) A Mediterranean diet can reduce the risk of Alzheimer's

A
True
B
False
True

3) A good night of sleep helps prevent Alzheimer's

A
True
B
False
True

4) Alzheimer's can be cured

A
True
B
False
False

5) Only older people get Alzheimer's

A
True
B
False
False

6) There is a link between smoking and Alzheimer's

A
True
B
False
True

7) Flu shots increase the risk of Alzheimer's disease

A
True
B
False
False

8) Alzheimer's is caused by silver dental fillings

A
True
B
False
False

9) All Alzheimer's patients are aggressive and agitated

A
True
B
False
False

10) A prior head injury can increase the risk of developing Alzheimer's and other forms of dementia

A
True
B
False
True

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Back Pain

Back Pain

1) Which of these are NOT part of a strong healthy back?

A
Vertebrae
B
Fibula
C
Discs
D
Ligaments
Fibula

2) What is the spine made of?

A
24 discs to absorb shock and enable movement
B
Muscle
C
33 bones called vertebrae
D
Capillaries
33 bones called vertebrae

3) What is not a common cause of a bad back?

A
Inflammation
B
Infection
C
Arthritis
D
Poor posture
Infection

4) What is a slipped disc?

A
When you are born with only 30 bones in your spine
B
When the interior substance of an intervertebral disc protrudes through its outer covering
C
A DVD-sized bruise
D
When your discs overlap over time
When the interior substance of an intervertebral disc protrudes through its outer covering

5) What is the biggest contributor to back pain?

A
Not using an ergonomic chair at work
B
Running marathons
C
Moving the spine without having enough muscle strength and support
D
Having scoliosis
Moving the spine without having enough muscle strength and support

6) How can many painful back conditions be prevented?

A
Wearing a back brace
B
Simple stretching and core strengthening exercises
C
Monthly spine check-ups
D
Taking vitamin C
Simple stretching and core strengthening exercises

7) Which of the following contributes to a healthy back?

A
Getting enough sleep so that injured areas can recover
B
Achieving an appropriate weight
C
Managing stress and tension
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) Which of these might be recommended as treatments for back pain?

A
Physical therapy
B
Meditation
C
Back brace
D
All of the above
All of the above

9) What would you NOT do when dealing with back pain?

A
Stay in bed and rest until the pain disappears
B
Apply ice to the area
C
Go for an ultrasound
D
Attend counselling
Stay in bed and rest until the pain disappears

10) Which of the following is a symptom of pressure on a nerve?

A
Severe sharp pain
B
An electrical shock sensation
C
Numbness
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Back To School

Back To School

1) Where should you take your kids before the new school year starts?

A
To the dentist
B
To get the vaccinations they need
C
To the pediatrician for a check-up
D
All of the above
All of the above

2) Providing your child’s school with ________ would be helpful.

A
All the lab tests on your child’s condition
B
X-rays and scans
C
A simple one-page action plan for your child’s condition
D
A bank statement
A simple one-page action plan for your child’s condition

3) At least how many emergency contacts should you give the school?

A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
2

4) How can you help your child with special medical needs better adjust when school starts?

A
Decide what to tell the child’s classmates
B
Explain your child’s needs to their teacher
C
Tell the teacher about any recognizable signs of distress that are specific to your child
D
All of the above
All of the above

5) What are some examples of emergency medication?

A
Glucose tablets
B
Asthma inhalers
C
EpiPen
D
All of the above
All of the above

6) If your child needs to take medication regularly, what should you ensure?

A
Medicines are in their originally labeled containers
B
There is enough for both home and school use
C
Teachers and the school nurse have a dosage schedule
D
All of the above
All of the above

7) If the child needs to take medication at regular intervals, what should you ask the school to assist with?

A
Keeping the medication refrigerated, if necessary
B
Medicine reminders for your child
C
Arranging for someone to take your child to the school nurse, if necessary
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) If your child uses cochlear implants or hearing aids, what should you ensure?

A
That the teacher knows if they rely on lip-reading to some degree
B
That the teacher knows what to do if the equipment stops working properly
C
That your child knows to inform the teacher if they are having difficulty hearing
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Brain

Brain

1) When does most of brain growth occur?

A
At birth, 80% of brain growth has occurred
B
By 6 months, 80% of brain growth has occurred
C
At 10 years, 80% of brain growth has occurred
D
At 2 years, 80% of brain growth has occurred
At 2 years, 80% of brain growth has occurred

2) How big is the human brain?

A
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as a pillowcase
B
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as an A4/ letter sized paper
C
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as a large shopping bag
D
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as a queen size bed
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as a pillowcase

3) Do brains feel pain?

A
Yes, of course- what about headaches
B
Yes, the brain only feels pain after a shock of blunt force
C
No, the brain only feels pleasure. That headache comes from the meninges, the brains covering
D
Yes the brain has nerve endings and this makes it feel pain
No, the brain only feels pleasure. That headache comes from the meninges, the brains covering

4) How many blood vessels does a brain have?

A
The brain has 25,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth
B
The brain has 50,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth two times
C
The brain has 75,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth three times
D
The brain has 100,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth four times
The brain has 100,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth four times

5) What are brain farts?

A
Short forgetful moments- like why you walked into a room. The most common causes are stress and lack of sleep
B
Pulsations in the brain, caused by stress and high blood pressure
C
The shooting pains that comes from eating something too cold
D
The clicking sounds in heads during headaches
Short forgetful moments- like why you walked into a room. The most common causes are stress and lack of sleep

6) Does chewing gum boost brain power?

A
No, are you kidding?
B
Yes, people who chew gum score higher on memory tests! Be careful not to do this in Singapore
C
No, in fact, chewing gum harms brain power
D
Chewing gum has no effect of brain power
Yes, people who chew gum score higher on memory tests! Be careful not to do this in Singapore

7) Can the body stay alive when the brain is dead?

A
Yes, the body can live for a few hours without brain function
B
Yes, the body can live for weeks without brain function
C
No, once the brain dead, the heart will stop beating without any life sustaining measures
D
It all depends on the fitness of the body. If the body is fit, it can live on without brain function
No, once the brain dead, the heart will stop beating without any life sustaining measures

8) Are women better than men at multi-tasking?

A
No, neither men nor women are built to multi-task. People are wired to do one task at a time
B
Men , in fact, are faster at taking on multiple tasks
C
Yes! Research shows that men slow down more when multitasking compared to women
D
There is no difference between men and women when it comes to multi tasking
Yes! Research shows that men slow down more when multitasking compared to women

9) Why do some people find it easier to forgive?

A
All people are the same- there is no physical reason for it to be easier to forgive
B
People who have received forgiveness from others tend to be more forgiving
C
People who have been more religously educated are more forgiving than others
D
People who have a more developed anterior superior temporal sulcus (aSTS- an area in the brain) are more forgiving than others
People who have a more developed anterior superior temporal sulcus (aSTS- an area in the brain) are more forgiving than others

10) What determines human intelligence?

A
Intelligence is influenced by genes
B
Intelligence is influenced by the environment a person develops in
C
Intelligence is influenced by the foods that a person eats
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Breast Cancer

Breast Cancer

1) Only older women can get breast cancer.

A
True
B
False
False

2) A symptom of breast cancer can include bleeding from the nipple.

A
True
B
False
True

3) Genetics play no role in the likelihood that a man can get breast cancer.

A
True
B
False
False

4) Heavy alcohol consumption increases your chances of getting breast cancer.

A
True
B
False
True

5) Brittle, bruised, dry nails can be a side effect of chemotherapy.

A
True
B
False
True

6) Eating processed meats like sausages or ham is good for the fight against cancer.

A
True
B
False
False

7) Male breast cancer is usually detected in the early stage.

A
True
B
False
False

8) A mutated BRCA1 gene is an indication of protection against breast cancer.

A
True
B
False
False

9) The majority of men who have a higher risk of getting breast cancer are aware of their risk.

A
True
B
False
False

10) During treatment for breast cancer, physician-recommended exercises can help with the recovery.

A
True
B
False
True

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Cataracts

Cataracts

1) What can cataracts lead to?

A
Weight loss
B
Blindness
C
Nausea
D
Alopecia
Blindness

2) Which of these is NOT symptom of cataracts?

A
The need to change eyeglass prescriptions more frequently.
B
Splitting headaches
C
Blurry patches in the field of vision
D
Dulled or faded colors
Splitting headaches

3) Which group of people are safe from developing cataracts?

A
Babies
B
Teenagers
C
Both of the above
D
None of the above
None of the above

4) How are cataracts formed?

A
It happens automatically when we turn 50 years old
B
When we stare directly at the sun
C
When the proteins in our lens clump together and cloud an area of the lens
D
When there is a build-up of dust and dirt in our eye
When the proteins in our lens clump together and cloud an area of the lens

5) A diet rich in ______ can decrease your risk of developing cataracts.

A
calcium
B
protein
C
antioxidants
D
carbohydrates
antioxidants

6) Which of these are NOT one of the main types of cataracts?

A
Posterior subcapsular cataracts
B
Nuclear cataracts
C
Cortical cataracts
D
Anterior retinal cataracts
Anterior retinal cataracts

7) Which of these are NOT potential risk factors of developing cataracts?

A
Being color-blind
B
High alcohol consumption
C
Having diabetes
D
Advancing age
Being color-blind

8) What are some lifestyle changes you can make to prevent cataracts from developing?

A
Using homeopathic medicine
B
Taking antibiotics
C
Scheduling and attending regular eye examinations
D
Staying indoors all day
Scheduling and attending regular eye examinations

9) What is a cataract surgery?

A
The cloudy lens is removed and replaced with an artificial one
B
The entire eyeball is removed and replaced with a glass eye
C
An artificial lens is placed over the damaged lens
D
A saline solution is steadily dripped over the cloudy lens until it clears up
The cloudy lens is removed and replaced with an artificial one

10) Itchiness and redness in the eyes are likely indicators of?

A
Another eye disorder
B
That cataracts adevelopingre
C
That cataracts are worsening
D
That cataracts have become irreversible
Another eye disorder

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Cervical Cancer

Cervical Cancer

1) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is…

A
A sexually transmitted infection
B
A non-communicable disease
C
A vector-borne disease
D
An airborne disease
A sexually transmitted infection

2) How common is cervical cancer in women worldwide?

A
It is the most common cancer in women
B
It is the fourth most common cancer in women
C
It is the sixth most common cancer in women
D
It is the least common type of cancer in women
It is the fourth most common cancer in women

3) What is one of the symptoms of cervical cancer?

A
Vaginal bleeding after intercourse, in between menstrual periods or after menopause
B
Pain during intercourse or back, leg, pelvic pain
C
Vaginal discomfort or odorous discharge
D
All of the above
All of the above

4) How is the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) transmitted?

A
Through contaminated food or water
B
Through skin-on-skin contact between genitals
C
Through penetrative intercourse
D
Options 2) and 3)
Options 2) and 3)

5) Which of the following is a treatment option for cervical cancer?

A
Surgery
B
Radiation Therapy
C
Chemotherapy
D
All of the above
All of the above

6) How is HPV detected in men?

A
There is no HPV detection test for men
B
Through a urine test
C
Through a blood test
D
Options 2) and 3)
There is no HPV detection test for men

7) Which of the following is not a risk factor for cervical cancer?

A
A weak immune system
B
High caffeine intake
C
Early sexual activity or multiple sexual partners
D
Heavy smoking
High caffeine intake

8) What is a preventive measure for cervical cancer?

A
Pap Smear Test
B
Human Papillomavirus (HPV) DNA testing
C
Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Vaccine
D
All of the above
All of the above

9) What is the recommended time for one to seek Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine?

A
Before his/her first sexual exposure/contact
B
Between the ages of 9-26
C
After 26-years-old
D
Option 1) and 2)
Option 1) and 2)

10) Do boys need Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination?

A
No. Only females are at risk of contracting HPV
B
No. HPV does not present any health risk for men
C
Yes. Males are also at risk of contracting HPV and HPV infections may also cause cancers in men
D
Options 1) and 2)
Yes. Males are also at risk of contracting HPV and HPV infections may also cause cancers in men

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Chemotherapy

Chemotherapy

1) Chemotherapy is…

A
One type of drug that cures all cancers
B
One or more drugs that prevent cancer cells from dividing and spreading.
C
A type of anti-biotic
D
A nutritional supplement
One or more drugs that prevent cancer cells from dividing and spreading.

2) Chemotherapy is given for what reason?

A
It is given to wipe out cancer
B
It is given to shrink tumors
C
It is given to prevent cancer from spreading
D
Any of the above
Any of the above

3) What does the term local mean in the diagnosis of cancer?

A
Cancer is found only in the primary site
B
Cancer is found in several parts of the body
C
Cancer is the prevalent form found in the area that the person lives
D
Cancer treatment is administered directly into the area that the cancer is found
Cancer is found only in the primary site

4) How can chemotherapy treatments given?

A
Intravenously through a vein in the arm or hand
B
Orally
C
Through a port into the central vein
D
All of the above
All of the above

5) Possible side effects of chemotherapy do not include..

A
Fatigue
B
Oily skin
C
Hair loss
D
Nausea
Oily skin

6) Patients who are going through chemotherapy treatment are

A
Stuck in bed for months
B
Restricted from exercise
C
Bald from hair loss
D
Needing to listen to their bodies and take rest.
Needing to listen to their bodies and take rest.

7) If the side effects are affecting the patient’s ability to withstand the treatment,

A
The health care team will stop the treatment
B
The health care team might increase the period between treatments
C
The health care team will dilute the amount of chemo in the treatment
D
The health care team will administer the treatment while the patient is sleeping
The health care team might increase the period between treatments

8) There are ways to manage side effects of chemotherapy including:

A
Blood transfusions
B
Acupuncture
C
Meditation
D
All of the above
All of the above

9) If you are going through chemotherapy treatments it is helpful to

A
Ask for help preparing meals and cleaning up the house
B
Connect with other people who have had similar treatment
C
Listen to your body and rest if you are tired
D
All of the above
All of the above

10) What is a good way to help someone with cancer?

A
Tell the patient not to worry
B
Ignore the topic, and respect the privacy of the patient
C
Offer to help with something specific like driving to treatment or helping out at home.
D
Tell them about alternative different treatments
Offer to help with something specific like driving to treatment or helping out at home.

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Dental

Dental

1) When should you first bring your child to the dentist?

A
When their first tooth appears
B
When they turn two
C
When their tooth falls out
D
When you make your own appointment
When their first tooth appears

2) By what age should all your child’s baby teeth have fallen out?

A
8 years old
B
10 years old
C
12 years old
D
14 years old
12 years old

3) Why should you NOT let your child fall asleep with a bottle in their mouth?

A
They might become overweight
B
It affects sleep quality
C
Tooth decay might develop
D
They might have nightmares
Tooth decay might develop

4) Why is fluoride useful?

A
It keeps breath fresh
B
It prevents tooth decay
C
It helps straighten teeth
D
It makes toothpaste taste sweeter
It prevents tooth decay

5) When should your child start flossing?

A
When they turn two
B
When their first tooth appears
C
When their teeth begin touching one another
D
When they are too lazy to brush
When their teeth begin touching one another

6) Around what age should children be allowed to brush their own teeth?

A
4 years old
B
6 years old
C
8 years old
D
10 years old
6 years old

7) How can your child keep their teeth safe when playing sports?

A
By wearing a helmet
B
By using a mouthguard
C
By learning how to play safely and avoid injury
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) How might thumb sucking affect oral development?

A
It might cause tooth decay
B
Vigorous thumb sucking could disrupt tooth alignment
C
It is unhygienic
D
It might hinder tooth growth
Vigorous thumb sucking could disrupt tooth alignment

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Diabetes

Diabetes

1) What are the risk factors for getting Type1(Juvenile) Diabetes?

A
Family history and genetics
B
Age
C
Where you live
D
All of the above
All of the above

2) Which is not a symptom of diabetes?

A
Extreme thirst
B
Weight loss
C
Oily skin
D
Sores that take longer to heal
Oily skin

3) How can one tell if a person with Type 1 Diabetes has insufficient sugar?

A
Impossible to see this
B
They will tell you
C
They will start to sweat and act differently
D
They will pass out
They will start to sweat and act differently

4) Which fact about people with Diabetes is true?

A
They have to eat different foods than the rest of the family
B
They can’t participate in competitive sports
C
They have to watch the amount of fat they eat
D
They should test their sugar level before they eat
They should test their sugar level before they eat

5) What is the factor that increases a woman’s risk of developing Gestational Diabetes

A
Obesity
B
A parent or sibling with diabetes
C
A previous pregnancy where the baby weighed more than 9 lbs at birth
D
All of the above
All of the above

6) How to prevent Diabetes Type 2?

A
There is no way to prevent getting diabetes type 2.
B
Maintain a healthy body weight
C
Take a 30 minute walk daily
D
B and C
B and C

7) Once diagnosed with pre-diabetes, which foods should you avoid eating?

A
Avocados
B
Breads and pastas
C
Cheese
D
All of the above
Breads and pastas

8) What type of foods have the greatest effect on blood glucose?

A
Carbohydrates
B
Fats
C
Proteins
D
None of the above
Carbohydrates

9) What is the glycemic index?

A
A calorie counting index
B
An index that measures blood sugar’s response two hours after eating a certain food
C
A sugar index
D
All of the above
An index that measures blood sugar’s response two hours after eating a certain food

10) What is not a long-term consequence of Diabetes

A
Heart attacks and strokes
B
Loss of nerve endings
C
Increased sensitivity of taste buds
D
Blindness
Increased sensitivity of taste buds

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Diabetes Type 1

Diabetes Type 1

1) What happens to the body when Type 1 diabetes develops?

A
There is an overproduction of insulin in the pancreas
B
The immune system attacks insulin-producing cells in the pancreas
C
There is an overproduction of insulin in the gallbladder
D
The immune system attacks insulin-producing cells in the gallbladder
The immune system attacks insulin-producing cells in the pancreas

2) What is the hormone insulin essential for?

A
Blood absorption
B
Glucose monitoring
C
Energy production
D
Regulating
Energy production

3) What should a person do before taking insulin?

A
Check their heart rate and oxygen levels to prevent an overdose
B
Abstain from food and drink for 12 hours for an accurate dosage
C
Check their blood sugar to know how high or low it is to calculate the insulin dose
D
Be well rested and not engage in physical activities for up to 8 hours
Check their blood sugar to know how high or low it is to calculate the insulin dose

4) Which of these is NOT a symptom of high blood sugar?

A
Frequent urination
B
Dry skin
C
High fever
D
Thirst
High fever

5) What happens to the body when insulin is not available?

A
The body will use fat to produce energy
B
The body shuts down
C
The body readily absorbs glucose
D
The body is unable to regulate blood flow
The body will use fat to produce energy

6) Which of the following should a person with T1D always have with them?

A
A source of fast-acting sugar
B
A hat to shield from the sun
C
A bottle of water
D
Food with a balance of sugar and fat
A source of fast-acting sugar

7) Which of these is NOT a symptom of low blood sugar?

A
Clammy, cold skin
B
Feeling lightheaded or dizzy
C
Frequent urination
D
Feeling shaky
Frequent urination

8) Which disease are people with T1D more likely to develop?

A
Celiac disease
B
Pemphigus
C
Graves’ disease
D
Polymyositis
Celiac disease

9) How can insulin be administered?

A
By oral medication
B
Via injections
C
Infused through a small pump worn almost all of the time
D
B and C
B and C

10) What happens when more insulin is taken than the body needs?

A
T1D is cured
B
Hyperglycemia is induced
C
The amount of available glucose in the bloodstream increases
D
The amount of available glucose in the bloodstream drops
The amount of available glucose in the bloodstream drops

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Diabetes Type 2

Diabetes Type 2

1) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Type 2 diabetes?

A
Feeling thirsty all the time
B
Infections and sores that heal slowly
C
Headaches
D
Sweating
Sweating

2) How can Type 2 diabetes be treated?

A
Lifestyle modifications
B
Steroids
C
Therapy
D
It can’t be treated
Lifestyle modifications

3) What is characteristic of Type 2 diabetes?

A
When the body does not produce insulin at all
B
When the body does not produce enough insulin
C
When the body responds adequately to insulin
D
When the body produces more than enough insulin
When the body does not produce enough insulin

4) What does the body need insulin for?

A
To break down fat for energy
B
To help convert sugar to energy
C
To regulate weight
D
To cause hypoglycemia
To help convert sugar to energy

5) What do insulin injections help with?

A
Decreasing blood sugar levels
B
Building up sugar in the bloodstream
C
Absorbing glucose
D
Managing weight gain
Decreasing blood sugar levels

6) What foods should people with Type 2 diabetes avoid?

A
Salty food
B
Fatty food
C
Spicy food
D
Sugary food
Sugary food

7) What are some complications that can arise from Type 2 diabetes?

A
Stomach cancer
B
Kidney failure
C
Appendicitis
D
Acne
Kidney failure

8) What is the best way to prevent Type 2 diabetes?

A
There is no way to prevent diabetes type 2
B
Maintain a healthy body weight
C
Take a 30-minute walk daily
D
B and C
B and C

9) Approximately what percent of people with diabetes have T2D?

A
50%
B
70%
C
80%
D
90%
90%

10) What was Type 2 diabetes formerly known as?

A
Adult-onset diabetes
B
Late-stage diabetes
C
Gestational diabetes
D
Juvenile diabetes
Adult-onset diabetes

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Digestive System

Digestive System

1) Why does your stomach gurgle?

A
The noises come from an empty stomach
B
Talking while eating or eating too quickly create stomach noises
C
Stomach noises come from poor digestion especially from fructose and artificial sweeteners which are hard to digest
D
All of the above
All of the above

2) Who farts more? Men or Women?

A
Well isn't it obvious? Men
B
It's not what you think- women fart more
C
Men fart more but only as they age
D
Men fart just as much as women! It's just that they aren't embarrassed about it
Men fart just as much as women! It's just that they aren't embarrassed about it

3) How much saliva does an average person produce?

A
The average person produces 32 ounces or 910 grams a day
B
The average person produces 15 ounces or 425 grams a day
C
The average person produces 5 ounces or 140 grams a day
D
The average person produces 25 ounces or 710 grams a day
The average person produces 32 ounces or 910 grams a day

4) Whose farts smell worse men's , women's or children's?

A
Surprise! Women have higher sulfur levels, causing their farts to have a stronger odor
B
Men, of course, have smellier farts
C
Children's digestive systems are not as well developed which cause farts to smell worse
D
Everyone's farts smell the same
Surprise! Women have higher sulfur levels, causing their farts to have a stronger odor

5) How much food can a stomach hold?

A
Up to 2 1/4 pounds/ 1 kilo of food at a time
B
Up to 4 pounds/ 1.8 kilos of food at a time
C
The stomach begins to process and clear food immediately so there is not much storage
D
Up to 5 1/2 pounds/ 2 1/2 kilos of food at a time
Up to 4 pounds/ 1.8 kilos of food at a time

6) What type of weather increases hunger?

A
High humid weather, increases hunger to compensate for perspiration
B
The arrival of Autumn increases hunger- the body's way to get ready for chilly months
C
During winter, the body craves higher calorie, sweeter and fattier foods leading to excess fat storage- good for extra body warmth
D
There is no relation between increased hunger and weather.
During winter, the body craves higher calorie, sweeter and fattier foods leading to excess fat storage- good for extra body warmth

7) Is it healthier to eat only the egg whites or the whole egg?

A
Much healthier not eating the egg yolk- it's full of cholesterol
B
The yolk is responsible for half the protein content in an egg. Not eating the whole egg means losing out on all that protein
C
Any part of an egg is unhealthy. Better not to eat it
D
Makes no difference both the yolk and the whites have health benefits
The yolk is responsible for half the protein content in an egg. Not eating the whole egg means losing out on all that protein

8) What is the longest attack of hiccups ever recorded?

A
5 months
B
25 years
C
2 years
D
68 years
68 years

9) What do pregnant women eat that indicate they are carrying a baby girl?

A
Spicy foods
B
Lots of milk
C
Sweets especially chocolate
D
Eggs
Sweets especially chocolate

10) What do pregnant women eat that indicate they are carrying a baby boy?

A
Spicy foods
B
Lots of milk
C
Sweets especially chocolate
D
Eggs
Spicy foods

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Down Syndrome

Down Syndrome

1) A person with Down syndrome usually has how many chromosomes?

A
46
B
47
C
23
D
22
47

2) What is a typical feature of Down syndrome?

A
Upward slanting eyes
B
Poor muscle tone
C
Flat facial features
D
All of the above
All of the above

3) Which of the following is true about Down syndrome?

A
People with Down syndrome are always happy.
B
Some people with Down syndrome are of average intelligence.
C
People with Down syndrome cannot achieve life goals.
D
People with Down syndrome cannot play sports.
Some people with Down syndrome are of average intelligence.

4) What should you do when you communicate with a person with Down syndrome?

A
Be patient.
B
Show that you are comfortable with silent pauses.
C
Help complete his/her sentences.
D
Option 1) and 2)
Option 1) and 2)

5) What is the main risk factor for having a child with Down syndrome?

A
Smoking
B
Obesity
C
Advanced maternal age
D
Multiple pregnancies
Advanced maternal age

6) When working with people with Down syndrome, you should…

A
Give specific instructions.
B
Give them a different and exciting task every day.
C
Find out if they are comfortable with doing the assigned tasks.
D
Option 1) and 3)
Option 1) and 3)

7) People with Down syndrome have a higher risk of having what condition?

A
Obesity
B
Congenital heart defect
C
Thyroid disease
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) How can a pregnant woman ensure that her baby does not develop Down syndrome?

A
Nothing. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder present at conception.
B
By taking medication.
C
By undergoing radiation therapy.
D
By adopting a special diet.
Nothing. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder present at conception.

9) A person with Down syndrome cannot…

A
Go to a regular school.
B
Have a normal job.
C
Appreciate art, fashion and music.
D
None of the above
None of the above

10) Which of the following is most likely to be true about your co-worker who has Down syndrome?

A
He/she appreciates when you introduce him/her as your friend or co-worker “with Down syndrome”.
B
He/she works best with structure and routine.
C
He/she enjoys change and taking on daily challenges.
D
He/she will not be upset even if he/she is taken advantage of.
He/she works best with structure and routine.

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Eye Care

Eye Care

1) Contact lenses are suitable for older adults

A
True
B
False
True

2) It is okay to purchase decorative lenses without a prescription

A
True
B
False
False

3) Smoking has an impact on my eye health

A
True
B
False
True

4) It is not safe to sleep with contact lenses on

A
True
B
False
True

5) It is ok to wear your contact lenses when swimming, or showering

A
True
B
False
False

6) Contact lens cases should be cleaned regularly with water

A
True
B
False
False

7) Contact lens solution can be transferred from one container to another container

A
True
B
False
False

8) Contact lens cases can be kept for 6 months

A
True
B
False
False

9) Contact lenses can’t be shared by different people

A
True
B
False
True

10) Different contact lens solutions should not be mixed

A
True
B
False
True

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Fatty Liver

Fatty Liver

1) Who can get Fatty Liver?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
Only children
B
Mostly adults aged 25 to 45
C
The elderly
D
Virtually anyone
Virtually anyone

2) Which is a risk factor for NAFLD?

A
Underactive thyroid
B
Type 2 Diabetes
C
Obesity, especially around the stomach
D
All of the above
All of the above

3) Which of the following is not used in diagnosing Fatty Liver?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
A review of your medical history
B
Medical tests like a blood test or a CT scan
C
A fitness test
D
A liver biopsy
A fitness test

4) What are the symptoms of Fatty Liver?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
Sharp, shooting pains in the abdomen
B
Nausea and fainting
C
Sustained high fever
D
There are typically no symptoms
There are typically no symptoms

5) What is a recommended diet for someone with risk factors?

A
A Mediterranean diet
B
A Paleo diet
C
A strictly plant-based diet
D
A dairy-free diet
A Mediterranean diet

6) What is the recommended weight loss to reduce inflammation?

A
5 - 10%
B
10 - 15%
C
15 - 20%
D
20 - 25%
5 - 10%

7) What should you be aware of when treating Fatty Liver?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
That the condition is volatile
B
That rapid weight loss can actually contribute to NAFLD
C
That treatment plans are very expensive
D
That you have to undergo extended periods of abstaining from food
That rapid weight loss can actually contribute to NAFLD

8) How is Fatty Liver treated?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
There is no widely accepted medical treatment
B
Following an intense cardio regimen, 3 times a day
C
Surgery
D
Minimizing the underlying risk factors by safely increasing activity levels and eating healthy
Minimizing the underlying risk factors by safely increasing activity levels and eating healthy

9) What is cirrhosis?

A
A condition that attempts to repair liver cells
B
A condition that occurs when the fat percentage of the liver is above 20%
C
A condition that occurs when excessive scarring of the liver prevents healthy cells from regenerating
D
A condition that prevents excessive scarring of the liver from occurring
A condition that occurs when excessive scarring of the liver prevents healthy cells from regenerating

10) What happens when cirrhosis progresses?

A
Liver failure occurs, and a transplant is necessary
B
It goes away on its own after awhile
C
There is no treatment
D
The liver is ruptured, causing excessive internal bleeding
Liver failure occurs, and a transplant is necessary

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Flu

Flu

1) Which virus causes flu ?

A
Rota Virus
B
Ebola Virus
C
Influenza Virus
D
Herpes Virus
Influenza Virus

2) Flu virus spreads when a sick person

A
Talks
B
Sneezes
C
Coughs
D
All of the above
All of the above

3) What are some of the ways you can boost your immune system for the cold and flu season?

A
Balanced diet with vitamin-rich foods such as fruits and dark leafy greens
B
Not getting enough sleep everyday
C
Vitamin C and Zinc supplements
D
1 and 3
1 and 3

4) How often do you need to take the flu vaccine?

A
Only once in a lifetime
B
Every year
C
Every 5 years
D
Every 10 years
Every year

5) What can you do to prevent flu?

A
Minimise contact with the sick
B
Wash your hands with soap often and avoid touching face
C
Get yearly flu jab
D
All the above
All the above

6) Seasonal flu shots are not suitable for people with

A
An allergy to chicken eggs
B
Severe reaction to a flu vaccination in the past
C
Infants younger than 6 months of age
D
2 and 3
2 and 3

7) What are the symptoms of flu ?

A
Headache, Fatigue
B
Fever
C
Chest discomfort, cough
D
All the above
All the above

8) If flu is left untreated, what are the possible complications?

A
Pneumonia
B
Bronchitis
C
Ear Infection
D
All of the above
All of the above

9) Symptoms that need immediate medical attention when you have flu?

A
Fever with rash
B
Short of breath and/or develop chest pain
C
Severe or persistent vomiting
D
All of the above
All of the above

10) How to speed up your recovery from flu?

A
Stay at home and rest
B
Antivirals
C
Stay hydrated / Drink chicken soup
D
All the above
All the above

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Hair

Hair

1) Who is more likely to get ingrown hairs?

A
People with curly or coarse hair
B
People with straight hair
C
People with dark hair
D
People with blond hair
People with curly or coarse hair

2) Does shaving create ingrown hairs?

A
No, plucking hair with tweezers creates more ingrown hairs
B
No, oily skin makes ingrown hair
C
No, ingrown hairs occur only in adolescence
D
Yes, ingrown hairs are more likely to occur in areas that are shaved more frequently.
Yes, ingrown hairs are more likely to occur in areas that are shaved more frequently.

3) Does stress make dandruff worse?

A
Yes, stress can raise blood pressure thereby creating a drier scalp which causes dandruff
B
Yes, stress impairs your immune system and can result in dandruff flare-ups
C
No, stress has no effect on dandruff
D
Yes, stress implies mental distress which can lead to dandruff
Yes, stress impairs your immune system and can result in dandruff flare-ups

4) Are there natural remedies for getting rid of lice?

A
No, only over-the-counter topical medication like permethrin or pyrethrin with additives can kill lice and their eggs
B
Yes, Applying mayonaise to the whole head and letting it sit in for 30 minutes
C
Yes, A mixture of tea tree essential oil, anise essential oil and ylang ylang essential oil will kill lice
D
2 and 3
2 and 3

5) Do hair and nails keep growing after you die?

A
Yes, haven't you seen any horror pictures
B
No, hair and nails fall right off after you die
C
No, after death, skin dries and pulls away from nails and hair. This makes them appear to grow when they really aren't
D
Yes, the cells in hair and nails take extra time to stop functioning
No, after death, skin dries and pulls away from nails and hair. This makes them appear to grow when they really aren't

6) Does blonde hair sometimes turn green from a pool?

A
No, you must get your eyes checked
B
Yes, the chlorine damages hair cuticles, causing the copper present in pool water to create a green hair color
C
Yes, on badly dyed hair
D
Yes, it’s the reflection of the sunlight onto hair that changes the color
Yes, the chlorine damages hair cuticles, causing the copper present in pool water to create a green hair color

7) Can onion juice help treat hair-loss?

A
Yes, the acid from the onion juice stimulates hair growth
B
Yes, the membranes of the onion contain hair growth properties
C
Yes, onion juice is rich in sulfar and can be effective in treating spot baldness. 87% of men tested found that it helped
D
No, and it will make you stinky
Yes, onion juice is rich in sulfar and can be effective in treating spot baldness. 87% of men tested found that it helped

8) How is the baldness trait passed down ?

A
Baldness is not an inherited trait
B
The baldness trait is inherited from mothers
C
The baldness trait is inherited from fathers
D
The baldness trait is inherited from either parent
The baldness trait is inherited from either parent

9) Is the amount of anesthesia you need influenced by hair color?

A
Yes! Redheads need 20% more anesthesia to be unconscious
B
Yes! Blonds need 25% more anesthesia to be unconscious
C
Yes, prematurely white haired patients need 20% more anesthesia to be unconscious
D
No, hair color has no influence on the amount of anesthesia needed to become unconscious.
Yes! Redheads need 20% more anesthesia to be unconscious

10) Does hair grow faster if regularly cut?

A
Yes, the hair folicle grows more quickly the more it is cut
B
No! Your hair does not have nerve endings so it does effect hair growth
C
Yes! Haven't you learned this from your hair stylist
D
Yes! Split ends curtail hair growth, so it is important to cut these off
No! Your hair does not have nerve endings so it does effect hair growth

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Hepatitis

Hepatitis

1) Hepatitis A, B, C can be prevented by getting vaccinated.

A
True
B
False
False

2) Pregnant women should not take the Hepatitis A vaccine.

A
True
B
False
False

3) Adults who have had Hepatitis A can donate blood.

A
True
B
False
False

4) Hepatitis B can be transmitted via a shared toothbrush.

A
True
B
False
True

5) Women with Hepatitis B can breast feed.

A
True
B
False
True

6) Hepatitis B is curable.

A
True
B
False
False

7) Only children can be vaccinated against Hepatitis B.

A
True
B
False
False

8) A patient can get Hepatitis A multiple times

A
True
B
False
False

9) Many people with Hepatitis B experience no symptoms.

A
True
B
False
True

10) Hepatitis A is spread from eating food or water that has been contaminated by the feces of an infected person.

A
True
B
False
True

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Hygiene

Hygiene

1) Which is an example of a foodborne disease?

A
Mastoiditis
B
Paronychia
C
Norovirus
D
Rhinorrhea
Norovirus

2) How many people do foodborne illnesses affect globally every year?

A
1 in every 5
B
1 in every 10
C
1 in every 20
D
1 in every 50
1 in every 10

3) Where is the best place to defrost frozen foods?

A
Under warm running water
B
On the counter top, in room temperature
C
Submerged in cold water
D
On a plate in the refrigerator
On a plate in the refrigerator

4) Washing your hands before handling food reduces the chance of getting diarrhea by ______?

A
29%
B
31%
C
47%
D
54%
31%

5) To thoroughly wash hands, you should lather for at least ________.

A
10 seconds
B
20 seconds
C
30 seconds
D
40 seconds
20 seconds

6) Which of these foods need to be washed before cutting?

A
Mushrooms
B
Sirloin steak
C
Seabass
D
Honeydew
Honeydew

7) Cooked chicken needs to reach an internal temperature of ______ before being safe to eat.

A
145°C
B
155°C
C
160°C
D
175°C
160°C

8) What should you do before safely consuming leftover marinade?

A
It can’t be eaten, you should throw it away
B
You don’t have to do anything, it can be eaten as is
C
Boil it before serving to kill the bacteria
D
Serve it in a separate bowl
Boil it before serving to kill the bacteria

9) When is it safe to refreeze previously frozen food?

A
After letting it slowly thaw on a dish in the refrigerator
B
More than 5 hours after buying it from the supermarket
C
After thawing the frozen food under running water
D
It’s never safe to refreeze previously frozen food
More than 5 hours after buying it from the supermarket

10) To avoid food poisoning while eating out, what should you look out for in restaurants?

A
Strong cooking smells from the kitchen
B
The kitchen staff is properly attired
C
A clean kitchen
D
B and C
B and C

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Hypertension

Hypertension

1) What is another name for hypertension?

A
High blood glucose level
B
High blood pressure
C
Seizure
D
Muscle cramp
High blood pressure

2) Which of the following is the most desirable blood pressure?

A
Less than 120/80 mmHg
B
129/80 mmHg
C
130/70 mmHg
D
130/80 mmHg
Less than 120/80 mmHg

3) The two measurements of blood pressure determine…

A
The pressure in your blood vessels when your heart beats.
B
The pressure in your blood vessels when your heart rests between beats.
C
If you have low, normal or high blood pressure.
D
All of the above.
All of the above.

4) According to American Heart Association, blood pressure is considered high when it is above…

A
110/80 mmHg
B
110/70mmHg
C
130/80 mmHg
D
130/70 mmHg
130/80 mmHg

5) Which of the following is not a risk factor for hypertension?

A
Drinking excess amounts of alcohol.
B
Regular fish consumption.
C
High dietary sodium intake.
D
Smoking.
Regular fish consumption.

6) Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to…

A
Stroke
B
Down syndrome
C
Huntington’s disease
D
Option 1) and 2)
Stroke

7) Which of the following is a preventive measure for hypertension?

A
Getting regular exercise.
B
Eating a healthy diet.
C
Limiting alcohol consumption.
D
All of the above.
All of the above.

8) Which of the following statements is false?

A
Reducing salt consumption can help to reduce risk of hypertension.
B
If both your parents have hypertension, you will also develop hypertension.
C
Children can also develop hypertension.
D
If you are overweight, you are more likely to develop hypertension.
If both your parents have hypertension, you will also develop hypertension.

9) What is a treatment for hypertension?

A
Undergoing dialysis
B
Making healthy lifestyle changes
C
Taking medication
D
Option 2) and 3)
Option 2) and 3)

10) What is a common symptom of hypertension?

A
Hypertension typically does not give rise to any symptoms.
B
Sweaty palms.
C
Weight gain.
D
Fever.
Hypertension typically does not give rise to any symptoms.

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Immunization

Immunization

1) What is immunization?

A
When a person is born immune to all infectious diseases
B
When a person is made immune or resistant to an infectious disease, typically through a vaccine
C
When a shot given under the skin is absorbed into the bloodstream
D
The digestive juices in the stomach break it down and the medicine passes into the bloodstream
When a person is made immune or resistant to an infectious disease, typically through a vaccine

2) How do vaccines work?

A
By targeting and eliminating viruses through the blood stream
B
By killing all the germs in the vicinity of the injection
C
By altering the brain to reject any pathogens from entering the body
D
By stimulating the body’s own immune system to protect the person against subsequent infection or disease
By stimulating the body’s own immune system to protect the person against subsequent infection or disease

3) According to WHO, there has been a _____ increase in measles cases across 183 countries from January 2018 to January 2019.

A
30%
B
40%
C
50%
D
60%
50%

4) Which of these do live vaccines help protect against?

A
Rabies
B
Hepatitis A
C
Chickenpox
D
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Chickenpox

5) What has led to the rise of anti-vaccination sentiments?

A
Misinformation
B
Social media
C
Influence from celebrity figures
D
All of the above
All of the above

6) Which disease, once almost eradicated, is now a making a comeback?

A
Smallpox
B
Measles
C
Greyscale
D
Lycanthropy
Measles

7) Why is immunization beneficial?

A
Prevents between 2 and 3 million deaths per year
B
Is one of the most cost-effective health investments
C
Allows effective delivery through outreach activities
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) If the people around me are vaccinated, why do I have to get vaccinated as well?

A
If the optimum rates of immunization are not maintained, the diseases prevented by vaccination will return
B
Some people are more susceptible to diseases than others
C
Airborne diseases can still spread
D
Some diseases thrive especially in cleaner environments
If the optimum rates of immunization are not maintained, the diseases prevented by vaccination will return

9) What percentage of a population needs to be immunized before herd immunity occurs?

A
60%
B
70%
C
80%
D
90%
90%

10) Which of these vaccinations would you probably need before traveling overseas?

A
Yellow fever
B
Typhoid fever
C
Cholera
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Menopause

Menopause

1) How can women try to prevent hot flashes?

A
Drink ice water
B
Exercise
C
Take certain medications- but ask your doctor
D
All of the above
All of the above

2) What is the average age when women start menopause?

A
65
B
45
C
51
D
60
51

3) What is a symptom of menopause?

A
Hot Flashes
B
Muscle pain
C
Mood Swings
D
All of the above
All of the above

4) Why does menopause affect bones?

A
Declining estrogen levels cause a decrease in bone density
B
Older women consume less calcium
C
No one likes milk so this catches up when you age
D
As you age, you become less active which harms the bones
Declining estrogen levels cause a decrease in bone density

5) Is heart disease and menopause linked?

A
Yes, lower estrogen levels seem to play a factor
B
No, menopause does not cause heart disease
C
Yes, the end of menstruation affects blood circulation
D
1 and 3
Yes, lower estrogen levels seem to play a factor

6) In an American study, which group was found to have less menopausal symptoms?

A
Hispanics
B
Asian-Americans
C
Caucasians
D
African- Americans
Asian-Americans

7) What is the name of the first stage of menopause?

A
perimenopause
B
paramenopause
C
premenopause
D
postpartum
perimenopause

8) If menstruation starts early does that influence the age when menopause begins?

A
No, everyone goes into menopause at around the same time
B
Yes, women who start menstruation before 12 years, will begin menopause earlier
C
No, the time that you start menopause is dependent on your diet
D
No, early menopause is influenced by your environment
Yes, women who start menstruation before 12 years, will begin menopause earlier

9) Why do women tend to gain weight during menopause?

A
Appetites grow in menopause
B
Older women tend to do less exercise
C
With hormonal imbalance, the body begins to store fat
D
As women get older, they are more hungry
With hormonal imbalance, the body begins to store fat

10) What happens during perimenopause?

A
Lighter periods
B
Uncontrolable laughter
C
More calm demeanor
D
Severe menstrual pain
Lighter periods

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Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis

1) What kind of disease is osteoporosis?

A
Skin Disease
B
Bone disease
C
Sexually transmitted disease
D
Heart Disease
Bone disease

2) What causes osteoporosis?

A
The body loses too much bone
B
The body makes too little bone
C
Bones lose density and mass
D
All of the above
All of the above

3) Which group of people is more likely to develop osteoporosis?

A
Women over 50
B
Young children
C
Teenagers
D
Men in their 30s
Women over 50

4) What are some symptoms of osteoporosis?

A
Frequent headaches and dizzy spells
B
Height decrease and stooped posture over time
C
Pain in eyes and obscured vision
D
Loss of hair
Height decrease and stooped posture over time

5) Which of these is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?

A
Menopause
B
Low body weight
C
A history of broken bones
D
A history of joint dislocations
A history of joint dislocations

6) Which of these lifestyle factors does NOT increase the risk of osteoporosis?

A
Smoking
B
Consuming more than two alcoholic drinks daily
C
Consuming too much calcium
D
A sedentary lifestyle
Consuming too much calcium

7) How can you improve overall bone health?

A
Sleeping and waking up early
B
Weight-bearing exercises
C
Consuming alcohol occasionally
D
Drinking more water
Weight-bearing exercises

8) Which of these is NOT a treatment or prevention for osteoporosis?

A
Having sufficient sleep
B
Taking a bone density test
C
Getting an adequate daily amount of calcium and Vitamin D
D
Limiting alcohol intake and not smoking
Having sufficient sleep

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Ovarian Cancer

Ovarian Cancer

1) Ovarian cancer is the _____ most common cancer among women.

A
3rd
B
4th
C
8th
D
18th
8th

2) Ovarian cancer is the _____ most common cancer in the world.

A
10th
B
12th
C
15th
D
18th
18th

3) Where does ovarian cancer typically begin?

A
In the vagina
B
In the cervix
C
In the fallopian tubes or ovaries
D
All of the above
All of the above

4) What are the three main types of ovarian cancer?

A
Epithelial, stromal, and germ cell
B
Exocrine, endocrine, and islet cell
C
Adenocarcinoma, stromal, and squamous cell
D
Epithelial, exocrine, and islet cell
Epithelial, stromal, and germ cell

5) Which of the following is a risk factor of ovarian cancer?

A
Being a woman aged 55 and above
B
Being post-menopausal
C
Having a personal history of breast, ovarian, colorectal, or endometrial cancer
D
All of the above
All of the above

6) How can a person reduce their risk for developing ovarian cancer?

A
Having at least one full-term pregnancy
B
Removing the ovaries and fallopian tubes
C
Taking oral contraceptives
D
All of the above
All of the above

7) Which of these can be a symptom of ovarian cancer?

A
Having a bloated or upset stomach
B
Having nausea or indigestion
C
Having pelvic or abdominal pain
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) How can genetic testing help?

A
It can prevent the tumors from forming
B
It can identify inherited genetic mutations associated with a higher risk of ovarian cancer
C
It can eliminate inherited genetic mutations
D
It can completely cure the cancer
It can identify inherited genetic mutations associated with a higher risk of ovarian cancer

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Parkinson's Disease

Parkinson's Disease

1) Parkinson’s disease is a…

A
Hereditary condition
B
Autoimmune disease
C
Neurological disorder
D
Musculoskeletal disorder
Neurological disorder

2) Parkinson’s disease is associated with a shortage of which chemical in the brain?

A
Dopamine
B
Serotonin
C
Noradrenaline
D
Endorphins
Dopamine

3) What is the average age for onset of Parkinson’s disease?

A
40 years old
B
50 years old
C
60 years old
D
70 years old
60 years old

4) Which of the following is recognized as an initial cardinal sign present in Parkinson disease?

A
Bradykinesia or slowness of movement
B
Rigidity
C
Tremor
D
All of the above
All of the above

5) How many stages of Parkinson’s disease are there?

A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
5

6) Which of the following is not a treatment for symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A
Hormone therapy
B
Deep brain stimulation
C
Medication
D
Physical, occupational and speech therapy
Hormone therapy

7) Parkinson’s disease is more common in…

A
Men
B
Women
C
People age 40 and younger
D
Parkinson’s is not common in any particular age group or gender
Men

8) What is the known cause of Parkinson’s disease?

A
Genetics
B
Exposure to toxins
C
Both 1) and 2)
D
There is no known cause.
There is no known cause.

9) Parkinson’s disease is commonly diagnosed through...

A
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
B
Clinical Diagnosis
C
Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
D
Biopsy
Clinical Diagnosis

10) Which of these famous leaders suffered from Parkinson's disease?

A
Pope John Paul 11
B
Pierre Elliott Trudeau
C
Francisco Franco
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Pneumonia

Pneumonia

1) Which organ does pneumonia mainly affect?

A
Heart
B
Lungs
C
Kidneys
D
Skin
Lungs

2) Common symptoms of pneumonia include:

A
Cough
B
Difficulty Breathing
C
Fatigue
D
All of the above
All of the above

3) How severe is pneumonia?

A
Mild
B
Severe
C
Life threatening
D
Any of the above
Any of the above

4) Which of the following is used to diagnose pneumonia?

A
MRI
B
Pap Test
C
Chest x-ray
D
Urine Test
Chest x-ray

5) Which mental state is most associated with pneumonia?

A
Anxiety
B
Anger
C
Happiness
D
Confusion or delirium
Confusion or delirium

6) Which is NOT a safe or effective treatment for pneumonia?

A
Respiration therapy
B
Supportive therapy
C
Antibiotic treatment prescribed by doctors
D
Over the counter medication prescribed by pharmacists
Over the counter medication prescribed by pharmacists

7) What can you do to reduce your chances of developing pneumonia?

A
Good nutrition and sufficient sleep
B
Vaccinations and regular medical check ups
C
Washing hands frequently or using alcohol-based sanitizer
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) Who is more prone to developing pneumonia?

A
People above 65 years
B
Young children and babies
C
People with existing lung disease or who smoke
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Pregnancy

Pregnancy

1) Typically, how often does a woman release an egg?

A
Once every 7 days
B
Once every 14 days
C
Once every 28 days
D
Once every 56 days
Once every 28 days

2) How long is a woman’s window of fertility?

A
Approximately 2 days long
B
Approximately 4 days long
C
Approximately 6 days long
D
Approximately 8 days long
Approximately 6 days long

3) Which of these is NOT a way to track ovulation?

A
Calendar
B
Basal temperature
C
Ovulation predictor kit
D
Dry mouth
Dry mouth

4) Why should you consider having pre-conception genetic testing?

A
To know if the parents carry specific genes for certain diseases that can be passed down to the child
B
A healthier egg is developed, making the woman more fertile
C
The man’s sperm is strengthened, and he becomes more fertile
D
B & C
To know if the parents carry specific genes for certain diseases that can be passed down to the child

5) At what age does a woman’s fertility start to decline?

A
Mid to late 20s
B
Mid to late 30s
C
Mid to late 40s
D
It starts declining from puberty
Mid to late 20s

6) When should you start taking folic acid supplements?

A
Every day for at least a month before trying to conceive
B
Every day for at least 2 months before trying to conceive
C
Once a week for at least 2 months before trying to conceive
D
Once a week for at least 3 months before trying to conceive
Every day for at least a month before trying to conceive

7) What should you avoid eating when trying to conceive?

A
Fish that are high in mercury
B
Eggs
C
Dairy products
D
Red meat
Fish that are high in mercury

8) Which of these medical conditions can NOT affect fertility?

A
Thyroid problems
B
Uterine abnormalities
C
Scar tissue
D
Halitosis
Halitosis

9) What should you do if you are in your 20s and have regularly had unprotected sex for a year without conceiving?

A
Keep trying
B
Change your diet
C
Visit the A&E
D
Consult a fertility specialist
Consult a fertility specialist

10) What can you do if you want to delay pregnancy but are concerned about age-related fertility decline?

A
Take hormone injections
B
Freeze your eggs
C
Stay celibate
D
Go on the pill
Freeze your eggs

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Prostate Cancer

Prostate Cancer

1) What is the function of a prostate gland?

A
To increase sex drive
B
To store semen
C
To generate growth hormones
D
To produce seminal fluid
To produce seminal fluid

2) Where is the prostate located?

A
In the colon
B
Near the fundus
C
Above the bladder, below the rectum
D
Between the bladder and the rectum
Between the bladder and the rectum

3) Roughly how big is the prostate gland?

A
Olive-sized
B
Walnut-sized
C
Peach-sized
D
Grapefruit-sized
Walnut-sized

4) What causes prostate cancer?

A
An uncontrolled division of prostate cells
B
Urinating too many times
C
An inactive lifestyle
D
Exposure to radiation
An uncontrolled division of prostate cells

5) Which of these are not a symptom of prostate cancer?

A
Difficulty urinating
B
Pain during ejaculation
C
Extreme weight gain
D
Hip or lower back pain
Extreme weight gain

6) Which of these does not increase the risk of developing prostate cancer?

A
Having a high-protein diet
B
Being over 50 years old
C
Having two or more close male relatives with the disease
D
Smoking
Having a high-protein diet

7) From what age are men with a higher risk for prostate cancer recommended to get screened?

A
30
B
40
C
50
D
60
40

8) What do screening exams consist of?

A
A digital rectal exam and a blood test
B
A blood and urine test
C
A DNA test
D
A sigmoidoscopy
A digital rectal exam and a blood test

9) What is the Gleason score?

A
A scale determining the number of polyps present
B
A standard classification that indicates how aggressive the cancer is likely to be
C
It indicates the likelihood of inhering prostate cancer from a close relative
D
A score that shows how many healthy cells are present in the prostate
A standard classification that indicates how aggressive the cancer is likely to be

10) What are some prostate cancer treatments?

A
Radical prostatectomy
B
Radiation
C
Hormone therapy
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Skin Cancer

Skin Cancer

1) Where on the body can skin cancer develop?

A
Chest
B
Face
C
Legs
D
All of the above. It can occur anywhere on the body.
All of the above. It can occur anywhere on the body.

2) Which of these is NOT a symptom of skin cancer?

A
Moles that have recently appeared
B
The development of a lump on the body, leg, or arm
C
Moles that are irregular in shape, size, or color
D
Intense and excessive vomiting
Intense and excessive vomiting

3) Which of the following statistics is true?

A
1 in 3 cancers diagnosed is a skin cancer
B
1 in 5 cancers diagnosed is a skin cancer
C
1 in 10 cancers diagnosed is a skin cancer
D
1 in 20 cancers diagnosed is a skin cancer
1 in 3 cancers diagnosed is a skin cancer

4) Which of these is NOT a risk factor for skin cancer?

A
Pale and freckled skin and light-colored hair
B
Excessive sun exposure
C
A family history of skin cancer
D
Wearing glasses
Wearing glasses

5) During which time of day should you limit sun exposure?

A
9am to 7pm
B
10am to 4pm
C
7am to 7pm
D
8am to 6pm
10am to 4pm

6) How often should you reapply your sunscreen?

A
Every 30 minutes
B
Every hour
C
Every 2 hours
D
Applying once is enough
Every 2 hours

7) How can you help prevent eye damage?

A
By wearing UVA and UVB blocking sunglasses
B
By constantly reapplying eye drops
C
By wearing a baseball cap
D
You can’t get eye damage
By wearing UVA and UVB blocking sunglasses

8) How can skin cancer be diagnosed?

A
Biopsy or skin exam
B
Blood test
C
CT scan
D
An MRI
Biopsy or skin exam

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STIs

STIs

1) How does one get a Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI)?

A
Vaginal sex
B
Oral sex
C
Anal sex
D
All of the above
All of the above

2) Which of these sexually transmitted infections are NOT curable?

A
Chlamydia
B
HIV
C
Gonorrhea
D
Trichomoniasis
HIV

3) What are the first signs of having syphilis?

A
Painless sores
B
Chest pains
C
Painful urination
D
Pelvic pain
Painless sores

4) STIs during pregnancy can cause:

A
Miscarriage
B
Preterm Labour
C
Stillbirth
D
All of the above
All of the above

5) Which of these is NOT a risk factor for gonorrhea?

A
A previous pregnancy
B
Being sexually active
C
A previous gonorrhea diagnosis
D
A new sex partner
A previous pregnancy

6) Which group has the LEAST risk of contracting an STI?

A
Men who have sex with other men
B
Women experiencing menopause
C
Bisexual men
D
Young people of ages 15-24
Women experiencing menopause

7) How can you reduce your risk of getting STIs?

A
Abstaining from sex
B
Getting adequate sleep
C
Re-using latex condoms
D
Polygamy
Abstaining from sex

8) Which of these statements is FALSE?

A
Untreated gonorrhea can cause infection that affects the joints
B
Syphilis increases the risk of miscarriage, stillbirth or newborn death a few days after birth
C
A drug-resistant gonorrhea has compromised treatment of this infection
D
It is best to abstain from unprotected sex for one day after being treated for an STI
It is best to abstain from unprotected sex for one day after being treated for an STI

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Stress

Stress

1) Stress is the same for everybody

A
Yes, stress manifests itself the same in all people
B
No, each person experiences stress in different ways
No, each person experiences stress in different ways

2) Stress is always bad for you

A
No, Managed stress can be a stimulus, making us productive and happy
B
Yes, all stress is bad for your health
No, Managed stress can be a stimulus, making us productive and happy

3) Nothing that you can do about stress- it is everywhere!

A
No, you can plan your life so that stress does not overwhelm you
B
Yes, there is no avoiding stress
No, you can plan your life so that stress does not overwhelm you

4) The popular techniques for reducing stress are the best ones

A
Yes, you must follow these techniques to get over stress
B
No, there are no universally effective stress reduction techniques. Everyone is different and our reactions are never the same
No, there are no universally effective stress reduction techniques. Everyone is different and our reactions are never the same

5) If you have none of the symptoms, then you do not have stress

A
No, the absence of symptoms does not mean the absence of stress
B
Yes, you have to have the symptoms to be diagnosed with having stress
No, the absence of symptoms does not mean the absence of stress

6) Only major symptoms of stress require attention

A
Yes, only when the stress symptoms get severe, do you need to pay attention to them
B
Minor symptoms of stress are the early warnings that you need to focus on what is wrong in your life before the situation gets too bad
Minor symptoms of stress are the early warnings that you need to focus on what is wrong in your life before the situation gets too bad

7) Is talking in your sleep, called somniloquy, a sign of stress?

A
Yes, it seems so. If you do this frequently, it can be a sign that you need to express something that is deep in your subconscious
B
No, talking in your sleep just indicates that you are in a deep sleep probably because of some missed sleep
Yes, it seems so. If you do this frequently, it can be a sign that you need to express something that is deep in your subconscious

8) The best way to deal with stress is to exercise, breathe deeply and relax

A
Yes! This is the best way to deal with stress
B
No! Learning to think differently about challenging situations so stress will not return is the best way
No! Learning to think differently about challenging situations so stress will not return is the best way

9) Stress is not a big deal

A
No, It is a common ailment, no need to worry
B
Yes, Stress can affect every part of our body, it is a big deal
Yes, Stress can affect every part of our body, it is a big deal

10) Back aches can come from stress

A
Yes, With stress, muscles tense up, over a long period can cause severe back pain
B
No, back pain tends to be degenerative and come from worn out disks.
Yes, With stress, muscles tense up, over a long period can cause severe back pain

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Thyroid

Thyroid

1) The thyroid produces hormones that regulates what bodily function?

A
Metabolism
B
Blood glucose
C
Body temperature
D
Blood pressure
Metabolism

2) The most common thyroid condition is:

A
Hypothyroidism
B
Hyperthyroidism
C
Riedel's thyroiditis
D
Thyroid cancer
Hypothyroidism

3) How likely is it for women to get Hashimoto’s disease compared to men?

A
Two times more likely.
B
Three times more likely.
C
Five times more likely.
D
Ten times more likely.
Ten times more likely.

4) A person with untreated hypothyroidism may also suffer from:

A
Obesity
B
Heart disease
C
Infertility
D
All of the above
All of the above

5) Hypothyroidism may affect the pregnancy of a woman by:

A
Increasing the chances of premature birth and miscarriage
B
Decreasing chances of pregnancy or causing infertility
C
No effects on pregnancy at all
D
Both A) and B)
Both A) and B)

6) How is hypothyroidism treated?

A
With radiation
B
With surgery
C
Taking a synthetic hormone pill
D
The condition cannot be treated
Taking a synthetic hormone pill

7) What are some of the risk factors for hyperthyroidism?

A
Consuming significant amounts of iodine through food or medication
B
Having a family history of thyroid disease
C
Having an autoimmune disease
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) What food(s) should you avoid if you suffer from hyperthyroidism?

A
Dairy
B
Tomatoes
C
Seaweed
D
Both A) and C)
Both A) and C)

9) What is not a symptom of Graves’ disease?

A
Reddened, thickened skin around shin area
B
Red, bulging eyes
C
Weight gain
D
Goiter (swelling in the thyroid gland)
Weight gain

10) Which of the following helps to reduce symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A
Lower stress.
B
Avoid caffeine.
C
Quit smoking.
D
All of the above.
All of the above.

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Travel Hygiene

Travel Hygiene

1) How many hours of sleep is recommended for a strong immune system?

A
5 – 6 hours
B
7 – 8 hours
C
9 – 10 hours
D
11 – 12 hours
7 – 8 hours

2) Which is the most common illness people catch in crowds?

A
Mental illnesses
B
Respiratory illnesses
C
Gastrointestinal illnesses
D
Cardiovascular illnesses
Respiratory illnesses

3) Which of these measures should you take before your trip to ensure a strong immune system?

A
Get appropriate vaccinations
B
Stay well rested
C
Consume a high protein diet of lean meat along with citrus fruits
D
All of the above
All of the above

4) Which of these foods is high in vitamin C?

A
Rice
B
Broccoli
C
Chicken
D
All of the above
Broccoli

5) Which of these beverages should you avoid on your flight?

A
Alcohol
B
Coffee
C
Tap water
D
All of the above
All of the above

6) Which is the best way to relieve nasal discomfort caused by low humidity in planes?

A
Sleeping
B
Eating foods
C
Drinking coffee
D
Using nasal mists
Using nasal mists

7) How do you avoid falling sick during your travels?

A
Keeping hydrated
B
Keeping hands clean
C
Avoid touching your T-zone (eyes, mouth and nose)
D
All of the above
All of the above

8) Which of these should you avoid to prevent falling sick during your flight?

A
Sanitizing contaminated items
B
Keeping your hands clean
C
Drinking bottled water
D
Sitting in an aisle seat
Sitting in an aisle seat

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Vitamin D

Vitamin D

1) How can you tell if you might have a Vitamin D deficiency?

A
You develop painful joints
B
A diagnosis of osteoporosis or osteomalacia
C
You live in a cold climate
D
A diagnosis of myositis
A diagnosis of osteoporosis or osteomalacia

2) Which of the following conditions is NOT what Vitamin D is best known for preventing?

A
Rickets
B
Osetoporosis
C
Osteomalacia
D
Erythema
Erythema

3) What is one of the most important functions of Vitamin D?

A
To help the body absorb calcium
B
To help regulate blood production
C
To help produce enough white blood cells
C
To help produce enough white blood cells
To help the body absorb calcium

4) What happens when the body doesn’t get enough Vitamin D?

A
Your skin will become dry and scaly
B
You can prevent osteoporosis
C
The cells in your body die faster
D
The process of mineralization will be disrupted
The process of mineralization will be disrupted

5) What is rickets?

A
A disease characterized by disproportionately long limbs
B
A disease characterized by soft bones and skeletal deformities
C
A disease characterized by allergies to sunlight
D
A disease characterized by a low white blood cell count
A disease characterized by soft bones and skeletal deformities

6) What does a person NOT experience as a result of osteomalacia?

A
Musculoskeletal pain
B
Hair loss
C
Difficulty walking
D
A gait that is compared to a duck waddle
Hair loss

7) What is the daily recommended intake of Vitamin D for people between the ages of 12 months and 70 years?

A
600 IU
B
800 IU
C
1000 IU
D
1200 IU
600 IU

8) Which of the following foods are NOT a good source of Vitamin D?

A
Swordfish
B
Tuna
C
Seabream
D
Mackerel
Seabream

9) What is the maximum recommended total daily intake of vitamin D?

A
2000 IU
B
3000 IU
C
4000 IU
D
5000 IU
4000 IU

10) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor of Vitamin D deficiency?

A
Being a teenager
B
Lack of outdoor sun exposure
C
Having dark skin
D
Obesity
Being a teenager

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