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Migraine

Acid Reflux

Allergies

Alzheimer's

Autism

Back Pain

Back To School

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Health Quizzes

Think you’re a health nut? Try and ace these fun quizzes with all I’ve taught you!

Choose the best answer!

Migraine

Migraine

What is a migraine?

A
A recurring type of headache that usually becomes more severe over time
B
A headache disorder that is sometimes preceded by an aura
C
A type of headache that often starts on one side of the head
D
All of the above
All of the above

What is a common trigger for migraines?

A
Hormonal changes in women
B
Bright or flashing lights
C
Gluten-free diets
D
a) and b) only
a) and b) only

What is true about migraines?

A
They can cause debilitating pain
B
They can be cured
C
Everyone has the same migraine triggers
D
These are “normal” headaches that don’t require any treatment
They can cause debilitating pain

Which is not a migraine phase?

A
Prodrome
B
Aura
C
Psychosis
D
Postdrome
Psychosis

What is a common symptom during prodrome?

A
Irritability
B
Unexplained mood changes
C
Food cravings
D
All of the above
All of the above

What are auras?

A
Visual disturbances such as flashing lights or zig-zag lines
B
Another word for “headache”
C
A sort of hangover after a migraine attack
D
None of the above
Visual disturbances such as flashing lights or zig-zag lines

What is used to diagnose migraines?

A
Biopsy
B
Chest x-ray
C
Pap smear
D
None of the above
None of the above

What is a recommended lifestyle change for migraines?

A
Sleep more than 12 hours a day
B
Gain some weight
C
Practice stress management strategies
D
a) and b) only
Practice stress management strategies

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Acid Reflux

Acid Reflux

Acid reflux is a very common condition which often results in a burning sensation in the chest called _________.

A
Whooping cough
B
Chest pains
C
Heartburn
D
Stomach failure
Heartburn

When does acid reflux occur?

A
When the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) allows stomach acids into the small intestines
B
When the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) allows stomach acids back up into the esophagus
C
When the upper esophageal sphincter (UES) allows stomach acids back up into the esophagus
D
When the upper esophageal sphincter (UES) allows stomach acids into the small intestines
When the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) allows stomach acids back up into the esophagus

If you have this at least twice a week, what condition might you have?

A
You might have Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
B
You might have a swollen tongue
C
You might have strep throat
D
You might have gallstones
You might have Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

Approximately what percentage of the population in Western countries has GERD?

A
5 to 10%
B
10 to 20%
C
20 to 30%
D
30 to 40%
20 to 30%

Which of these foods should you avoid if you have acid reflux?

A
Broccoli
B
Tomatoes
C
Celery
D
Pumpkin
Tomatoes

What should you not do after eating to avoid acid reflux?

A
Lie down
B
Watch TV
C
Take a shower
D
Yawning
Lie down

Which of these beverages should you avoid if you have acid reflux?

A
Caffeinated drinks such as coffee, tea, and colas
B
Carbonated drinks
C
Red wine and other alcohol
D
All of the above
All of the above

How does smoking contribute to acid reflux?

A
Cigarettes have acidic ingredients in them, which worsens acid reflux
B
It ruins the palate, making it hard for the tongue to process acidic flavors
C
It affects the lung, and hence the digestive process
D
The nicotine in cigarettes relaxes the LES
The nicotine in cigarettes relaxes the LES

You’ll do better next time!

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Allergies

Allergies

What is an allergy?

A
The reason why some people find wool itchy
B
A bodily reaction to a drastic change in temperature – hot or cold
C
An inappropriate immune response
D
Incomprehensibly loud sneezes in quick succession
An inappropriate immune response

What is the only way to recover from anaphylaxis before going to the emergency room?

A
Walking it off
B
Taking deep breaths
C
An epinephrine shot
D
Taking pre-existing medicine
An epinephrine shot

What is one way that allergies can be treated?

A
With medication
B
Through counselling
C
There is no treatment
D
Allergies disappear over time
With medication

What percent of the world’s population suffers from some kind of allergy?

A
10%
B
20%
C
30%
D
40%
30%

Which of these does NOT happen when anaphylaxis occurs?

A
Your muscles loosen and feel floppy
B
Your airways constrain and tighten
C
Your pulse quickens
D
You lose consciousness
Your muscles loosen and feel floppy

What are some symptoms of an allergy-induced asthma attack?

A
Tingling or itching in the mouth
B
Wheezing and breathlessness
C
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea or vomiting
D
Shock with a severe drop in blood pressure
Wheezing and breathlessness

_______________ is one of the most common triggers of seasonal allergies.

A
Sunshine
B
Plastic
C
The weather
D
Pollen
Pollen

Which of these tests reveal your allergies?

A
Blood test
B
Urine test
C
Deoxyribonucleic acid test
D
IQ test
Blood test

How can food allergies be cured?

A
Abstaining from the problem foods
B
Eating more of the problem foods to build up resistance
C
Medication
D
There is no cure
There is no cure

Although it could happen at any age, which age groups are at the highest risk of fatal food-induced anaphylaxis?

A
Babies and children
B
Teenagers and young adults
C
Middle-aged adults
D
The elderly
Teenagers and young adults

You’ll do better next time!

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Alzheimer's

Alzheimer's

There is a difference between Alzheimer's and Dementia

A
True
B
False
True

A Mediterranean diet can reduce the risk of Alzheimer's

A
True
B
False
True

A good night of sleep helps prevent Alzheimer's

A
True
B
False
True

Alzheimer's can be cured

A
True
B
False
False

Only older people get Alzheimer's

A
True
B
False
False

There is a link between smoking and Alzheimer's

A
True
B
False
True

Flu shots increase the risk of Alzheimer's disease

A
True
B
False
False

Alzheimer's is caused by silver dental fillings

A
True
B
False
False

All Alzheimer's patients are aggressive and agitated

A
True
B
False
False

A prior head injury can increase the risk of developing Alzheimer's and other forms of dementia

A
True
B
False
True

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Autism

Autism

Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is...

A
A developmental disorder that affects communication and behavior
B
A condition that likely resulted from a combination of causes
C
A genetic disorder that is caused by an extra chromosome
D
A and B only
A and B only

What is NOT a risk factor for autism?

A
Gender
B
Family history
C
Genetics
D
None of the above
None of the above

Autism is known as a “spectrum” disorder because...

A
It affects all ethnic, racial, and economic groups
B
Its symptoms can vary greatly from one individual to another
C
It is caused by a combination of complex factors
D
It can span over an individual’s entire lifetime
Its symptoms can vary greatly from one individual to another

What is true about many individuals with autism?

A
They have a tendency to repeat certain behaviors
B
They thrive on organization and routine
C
They prefer language that is direct and straightforward
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which is a potential health complication for someone with autism?

A
Seizures
B
Gastrointestinal problem
C
Mental health issues
D
All of the above
All of the above

What is a common treatment for autism?

A
Parent-Mediated Therapy
B
Behavioral Management Therapy
C
Levodopa Therapy
D
A and B only
A and B only

What is true about girls and autism?

A
Girls recover faster from autism
B
Girls are rarely affected by autism
C
Girls are better at “camouflaging” their symptoms
D
None of the above
Girls are better at “camouflaging” their symptoms

What is NOT true about autism?

A
Early diagnosis and interventions are more likely to have major positive effects
B
Those with autism cannot remember information for long periods of time
C
Autism can sometimes be detected at 18 months or younger
D
None of the above
Those with autism cannot remember information for long periods of time

You’ll do better next time!

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Back Pain

Back Pain

Which of these are NOT part of a strong healthy back?

A
Vertebrae
B
Fibula
C
Discs
D
Ligaments
Fibula

What is the spine made of?

A
24 discs to absorb shock and enable movement
B
Muscle
C
33 bones called vertebrae
D
Capillaries
33 bones called vertebrae

What is not a common cause of a bad back?

A
Inflammation
B
Infection
C
Arthritis
D
Poor posture
Infection

What is a slipped disc?

A
When you are born with only 30 bones in your spine
B
When the interior substance of an intervertebral disc protrudes through its outer covering
C
A DVD-sized bruise
D
When your discs overlap over time
When the interior substance of an intervertebral disc protrudes through its outer covering

What is the biggest contributor to back pain?

A
Not using an ergonomic chair at work
B
Running marathons
C
Moving the spine without having enough muscle strength and support
D
Having scoliosis
Moving the spine without having enough muscle strength and support

How can many painful back conditions be prevented?

A
Wearing a back brace
B
Simple stretching and core strengthening exercises
C
Monthly spine check-ups
D
Taking vitamin C
Simple stretching and core strengthening exercises

Which of the following contributes to a healthy back?

A
Getting enough sleep so that injured areas can recover
B
Achieving an appropriate weight
C
Managing stress and tension
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which of these might be recommended as treatments for back pain?

A
Physical therapy
B
Meditation
C
Back brace
D
All of the above
All of the above

What would you NOT do when dealing with back pain?

A
Stay in bed and rest until the pain disappears
B
Apply ice to the area
C
Go for an ultrasound
D
Attend counselling
Stay in bed and rest until the pain disappears

Which of the following is a symptom of pressure on a nerve?

A
Severe sharp pain
B
An electrical shock sensation
C
Numbness
D
All of the above
All of the above

You’ll do better next time!

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Back To School

Back To School

Where should you take your kids before the new school year starts?

A
To the dentist
B
To get the vaccinations they need
C
To the pediatrician for a check-up
D
All of the above
All of the above

Providing your child’s school with ________ would be helpful.

A
All the lab tests on your child’s condition
B
X-rays and scans
C
A simple one-page action plan for your child’s condition
D
A bank statement
A simple one-page action plan for your child’s condition

At least how many emergency contacts should you give the school?

A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
2

How can you help your child with special medical needs better adjust when school starts?

A
Decide what to tell the child’s classmates
B
Explain your child’s needs to their teacher
C
Tell the teacher about any recognizable signs of distress that are specific to your child
D
All of the above
All of the above

What are some examples of emergency medication?

A
Glucose tablets
B
Asthma inhalers
C
EpiPen
D
All of the above
All of the above

If your child needs to take medication regularly, what should you ensure?

A
Medicines are in their originally labeled containers
B
There is enough for both home and school use
C
Teachers and the school nurse have a dosage schedule
D
All of the above
All of the above

If the child needs to take medication at regular intervals, what should you ask the school to assist with?

A
Keeping the medication refrigerated, if necessary
B
Medicine reminders for your child
C
Arranging for someone to take your child to the school nurse, if necessary
D
All of the above
All of the above

If your child uses cochlear implants or hearing aids, what should you ensure?

A
That the teacher knows if they rely on lip-reading to some degree
B
That the teacher knows what to do if the equipment stops working properly
C
That your child knows to inform the teacher if they are having difficulty hearing
D
All of the above
All of the above

You’ll do better next time!

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Brain

Brain

When does most of brain growth occur?

A
At birth, 80% of brain growth has occurred
B
By 6 months, 80% of brain growth has occurred
C
At 10 years, 80% of brain growth has occurred
D
At 2 years, 80% of brain growth has occurred
At 2 years, 80% of brain growth has occurred

How big is the human brain?

A
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as a pillowcase
B
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as an A4/ letter sized paper
C
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as a large shopping bag
D
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as a queen size bed
If you spread out all the wrinkles in the brain, it would be the same size as a pillowcase

Do brains feel pain?

A
Yes, of course- what about headaches
B
Yes, the brain only feels pain after a shock of blunt force
C
No, the brain only feels pleasure. That headache comes from the meninges, the brains covering
D
Yes the brain has nerve endings and this makes it feel pain
No, the brain only feels pleasure. That headache comes from the meninges, the brains covering

How many blood vessels does a brain have?

A
The brain has 25,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth
B
The brain has 50,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth two times
C
The brain has 75,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth three times
D
The brain has 100,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth four times
The brain has 100,000 miles of blood vessels. That's enough to circle the earth four times

What are brain farts?

A
Short forgetful moments- like why you walked into a room. The most common causes are stress and lack of sleep
B
Pulsations in the brain, caused by stress and high blood pressure
C
The shooting pains that comes from eating something too cold
D
The clicking sounds in heads during headaches
Short forgetful moments- like why you walked into a room. The most common causes are stress and lack of sleep

Does chewing gum boost brain power?

A
No, are you kidding?
B
Yes, people who chew gum score higher on memory tests! Be careful not to do this in Singapore
C
No, in fact, chewing gum harms brain power
D
Chewing gum has no effect of brain power
Yes, people who chew gum score higher on memory tests! Be careful not to do this in Singapore

Can the body stay alive when the brain is dead?

A
Yes, the body can live for a few hours without brain function
B
Yes, the body can live for weeks without brain function
C
No, once the brain dead, the heart will stop beating without any life sustaining measures
D
It all depends on the fitness of the body. If the body is fit, it can live on without brain function
No, once the brain dead, the heart will stop beating without any life sustaining measures

Are women better than men at multi-tasking?

A
No, neither men nor women are built to multi-task. People are wired to do one task at a time
B
Men , in fact, are faster at taking on multiple tasks
C
Yes! Research shows that men slow down more when multitasking compared to women
D
There is no difference between men and women when it comes to multi tasking
Yes! Research shows that men slow down more when multitasking compared to women

Why do some people find it easier to forgive?

A
All people are the same- there is no physical reason for it to be easier to forgive
B
People who have received forgiveness from others tend to be more forgiving
C
People who have been more religously educated are more forgiving than others
D
People who have a more developed anterior superior temporal sulcus (aSTS- an area in the brain) are more forgiving than others
People who have a more developed anterior superior temporal sulcus (aSTS- an area in the brain) are more forgiving than others

What determines human intelligence?

A
Intelligence is influenced by genes
B
Intelligence is influenced by the environment a person develops in
C
Intelligence is influenced by the foods that a person eats
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Breast Cancer

Breast Cancer

Only older women can get breast cancer.

A
True
B
False
False

A symptom of breast cancer can include bleeding from the nipple.

A
True
B
False
True

Genetics play no role in the likelihood that a man can get breast cancer.

A
True
B
False
False

Heavy alcohol consumption increases your chances of getting breast cancer.

A
True
B
False
True

Brittle, bruised, dry nails can be a side effect of chemotherapy.

A
True
B
False
True

Eating processed meats like sausages or ham is good for the fight against cancer.

A
True
B
False
False

Male breast cancer is usually detected in the early stage.

A
True
B
False
False

A mutated BRCA1 gene is an indication of protection against breast cancer.

A
True
B
False
False

The majority of men who have a higher risk of getting breast cancer are aware of their risk.

A
True
B
False
False

During treatment for breast cancer, physician-recommended exercises can help with the recovery.

A
True
B
False
True

You’ll do better next time!

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Cataracts

Cataracts

What can cataracts lead to?

A
Weight loss
B
Blindness
C
Nausea
D
Alopecia
Blindness

Which of these is NOT symptom of cataracts?

A
The need to change eyeglass prescriptions more frequently.
B
Splitting headaches
C
Blurry patches in the field of vision
D
Dulled or faded colors
Splitting headaches

Which group of people are safe from developing cataracts?

A
Babies
B
Teenagers
C
Both of the above
D
None of the above
None of the above

How are cataracts formed?

A
It happens automatically when we turn 50 years old
B
When we stare directly at the sun
C
When the proteins in our lens clump together and cloud an area of the lens
D
When there is a build-up of dust and dirt in our eye
When the proteins in our lens clump together and cloud an area of the lens

A diet rich in ______ can decrease your risk of developing cataracts.

A
calcium
B
protein
C
antioxidants
D
carbohydrates
antioxidants

Which of these are NOT one of the main types of cataracts?

A
Posterior subcapsular cataracts
B
Nuclear cataracts
C
Cortical cataracts
D
Anterior retinal cataracts
Anterior retinal cataracts

Which of these are NOT potential risk factors of developing cataracts?

A
Being color-blind
B
High alcohol consumption
C
Having diabetes
D
Advancing age
Being color-blind

What are some lifestyle changes you can make to prevent cataracts from developing?

A
Using homeopathic medicine
B
Taking antibiotics
C
Scheduling and attending regular eye examinations
D
Staying indoors all day
Scheduling and attending regular eye examinations

What is a cataract surgery?

A
The cloudy lens is removed and replaced with an artificial one
B
The entire eyeball is removed and replaced with a glass eye
C
An artificial lens is placed over the damaged lens
D
A saline solution is steadily dripped over the cloudy lens until it clears up
The cloudy lens is removed and replaced with an artificial one

Itchiness and redness in the eyes are likely indicators of?

A
Another eye disorder
B
That cataracts adevelopingre
C
That cataracts are worsening
D
That cataracts have become irreversible
Another eye disorder

You’ll do better next time!

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Cervical Cancer

Cervical Cancer

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is…

A
A sexually transmitted infection
B
A non-communicable disease
C
A vector-borne disease
D
An airborne disease
A sexually transmitted infection

How common is cervical cancer in women worldwide?

A
It is the most common cancer in women
B
It is the fourth most common cancer in women
C
It is the sixth most common cancer in women
D
It is the least common type of cancer in women
It is the fourth most common cancer in women

What is one of the symptoms of cervical cancer?

A
Vaginal bleeding after intercourse, in between menstrual periods or after menopause
B
Pain during intercourse or back, leg, pelvic pain
C
Vaginal discomfort or odorous discharge
D
All of the above
All of the above

How is the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) transmitted?

A
Through contaminated food or water
B
Through skin-on-skin contact between genitals
C
Through penetrative intercourse
D
Options 2) and 3)
Options 2) and 3)

Which of the following is a treatment option for cervical cancer?

A
Surgery
B
Radiation Therapy
C
Chemotherapy
D
All of the above
All of the above

How is HPV detected in men?

A
There is no HPV detection test for men
B
Through a urine test
C
Through a blood test
D
Options 2) and 3)
There is no HPV detection test for men

Which of the following is not a risk factor for cervical cancer?

A
A weak immune system
B
High caffeine intake
C
Early sexual activity or multiple sexual partners
D
Heavy smoking
High caffeine intake

What is a preventive measure for cervical cancer?

A
Pap Smear Test
B
Human Papillomavirus (HPV) DNA testing
C
Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Vaccine
D
All of the above
All of the above

What is the recommended time for one to seek Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine?

A
Before his/her first sexual exposure/contact
B
Between the ages of 9-26
C
After 26-years-old
D
Option 1) and 2)
Option 1) and 2)

Do boys need Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination?

A
No. Only females are at risk of contracting HPV
B
No. HPV does not present any health risk for men
C
Yes. Males are also at risk of contracting HPV and HPV infections may also cause cancers in men
D
Options 1) and 2)
Yes. Males are also at risk of contracting HPV and HPV infections may also cause cancers in men

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Chemotherapy

Chemotherapy

Chemotherapy is…

A
One type of drug that cures all cancers
B
One or more drugs that prevent cancer cells from dividing and spreading.
C
A type of anti-biotic
D
A nutritional supplement
One or more drugs that prevent cancer cells from dividing and spreading.

Chemotherapy is given for what reason?

A
It is given to wipe out cancer
B
It is given to shrink tumors
C
It is given to prevent cancer from spreading
D
Any of the above
Any of the above

What does the term local mean in the diagnosis of cancer?

A
Cancer is found only in the primary site
B
Cancer is found in several parts of the body
C
Cancer is the prevalent form found in the area that the person lives
D
Cancer treatment is administered directly into the area that the cancer is found
Cancer is found only in the primary site

How can chemotherapy treatments given?

A
Intravenously through a vein in the arm or hand
B
Orally
C
Through a port into the central vein
D
All of the above
All of the above

Possible side effects of chemotherapy do not include..

A
Fatigue
B
Oily skin
C
Hair loss
D
Nausea
Oily skin

Patients who are going through chemotherapy treatment are

A
Stuck in bed for months
B
Restricted from exercise
C
Bald from hair loss
D
Needing to listen to their bodies and take rest.
Needing to listen to their bodies and take rest.

If the side effects are affecting the patient’s ability to withstand the treatment,

A
The health care team will stop the treatment
B
The health care team might increase the period between treatments
C
The health care team will dilute the amount of chemo in the treatment
D
The health care team will administer the treatment while the patient is sleeping
The health care team might increase the period between treatments

There are ways to manage side effects of chemotherapy including:

A
Blood transfusions
B
Acupuncture
C
Meditation
D
All of the above
All of the above

If you are going through chemotherapy treatments it is helpful to

A
Ask for help preparing meals and cleaning up the house
B
Connect with other people who have had similar treatment
C
Listen to your body and rest if you are tired
D
All of the above
All of the above

What is a good way to help someone with cancer?

A
Tell the patient not to worry
B
Ignore the topic, and respect the privacy of the patient
C
Offer to help with something specific like driving to treatment or helping out at home.
D
Tell them about alternative different treatments
Offer to help with something specific like driving to treatment or helping out at home.

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Dental

Dental

When should you first bring your child to the dentist?

A
When their first tooth appears
B
When they turn two
C
When their tooth falls out
D
When you make your own appointment
When their first tooth appears

By what age should all your child’s baby teeth have fallen out?

A
8 years old
B
10 years old
C
12 years old
D
14 years old
12 years old

Why should you NOT let your child fall asleep with a bottle in their mouth?

A
They might become overweight
B
It affects sleep quality
C
Tooth decay might develop
D
They might have nightmares
Tooth decay might develop

Why is fluoride useful?

A
It keeps breath fresh
B
It prevents tooth decay
C
It helps straighten teeth
D
It makes toothpaste taste sweeter
It prevents tooth decay

When should your child start flossing?

A
When they turn two
B
When their first tooth appears
C
When their teeth begin touching one another
D
When they are too lazy to brush
When their teeth begin touching one another

Around what age should children be allowed to brush their own teeth?

A
4 years old
B
6 years old
C
8 years old
D
10 years old
6 years old

How can your child keep their teeth safe when playing sports?

A
By wearing a helmet
B
By using a mouthguard
C
By learning how to play safely and avoid injury
D
All of the above
All of the above

How might thumb sucking affect oral development?

A
It might cause tooth decay
B
Vigorous thumb sucking could disrupt tooth alignment
C
It is unhygienic
D
It might hinder tooth growth
Vigorous thumb sucking could disrupt tooth alignment

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Depression

Depression

What is the approximate number of people affected by depression worldwide?

A
300 million
B
10 million
C
1 billion
D
800 thousand
300 million

Which one of these is NOT a symptom of depression?

A
Loss of interest and pleasure
B
Temporary feelings of sadness
C
Feelings of worthlessness and guilt
D
Inability to think, concentrate or make decisions
Temporary feelings of sadness

How long must symptoms be present before a diagnosis of depression can be made?

A
less than 1 week
B
A whole lifetime
C
2 weeks
D
1 month
2 weeks

What are possible causes of depression?

A
Stress
B
Childhood trauma
C
Imbalance in brain processes
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which of these statements on depression is true?

A
Medication is not very effective in treating depression
B
A person with depression might not appear to be depressed
C
Depression is not a real medical condition
D
Depression only affects women
A person with depression might not appear to be depressed

Which of these factors does not increase the risk of depression?

A
Having at least 8 hours of sleep every night
B
A family history of depression
C
Experiencing a stressful situation e.g death, divorce, unemployment
D
Having a chronic medical condition
Having at least 8 hours of sleep every night

Which of these is NOT a treatment for depression?

A
Antidepressants
B
Psychotherapy
C
Brain-stimulation therapy
D
Isolation from other people
Isolation from other people

How can you support someone with depression?

A
Tell them to “snap out of it”
B
Stay away from them until they feel better
C
Be there for them and encourage them to seek professional help
D
Get them alcohol
Be there for them and encourage them to seek professional help

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Diabetes

Diabetes

What are the risk factors for getting Type1(Juvenile) Diabetes?

A
Family history and genetics
B
Age
C
Where you live
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which is not a symptom of diabetes?

A
Extreme thirst
B
Weight loss
C
Oily skin
D
Sores that take longer to heal
Oily skin

How can one tell if a person with Type 1 Diabetes has insufficient sugar?

A
Impossible to see this
B
They will tell you
C
They will start to sweat and act differently
D
They will pass out
They will start to sweat and act differently

Which fact about people with Diabetes is true?

A
They have to eat different foods than the rest of the family
B
They can’t participate in competitive sports
C
They have to watch the amount of fat they eat
D
They should test their sugar level before they eat
They should test their sugar level before they eat

What is the factor that increases a woman’s risk of developing Gestational Diabetes

A
Obesity
B
A parent or sibling with diabetes
C
A previous pregnancy where the baby weighed more than 9 lbs at birth
D
All of the above
All of the above

How to prevent Diabetes Type 2?

A
There is no way to prevent getting diabetes type 2.
B
Maintain a healthy body weight
C
Take a 30 minute walk daily
D
B and C
B and C

Once diagnosed with pre-diabetes, which foods should you avoid eating?

A
Avocados
B
Breads and pastas
C
Cheese
D
All of the above
Breads and pastas

What type of foods have the greatest effect on blood glucose?

A
Carbohydrates
B
Fats
C
Proteins
D
None of the above
Carbohydrates

What is the glycemic index?

A
A calorie counting index
B
An index that measures blood sugar’s response two hours after eating a certain food
C
A sugar index
D
All of the above
An index that measures blood sugar’s response two hours after eating a certain food

What is not a long-term consequence of Diabetes

A
Heart attacks and strokes
B
Loss of nerve endings
C
Increased sensitivity of taste buds
D
Blindness
Increased sensitivity of taste buds

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Diabetes Type 1

Diabetes Type 1

What happens to the body when Type 1 diabetes develops?

A
There is an overproduction of insulin in the pancreas
B
The immune system attacks insulin-producing cells in the pancreas
C
There is an overproduction of insulin in the gallbladder
D
The immune system attacks insulin-producing cells in the gallbladder
The immune system attacks insulin-producing cells in the pancreas

What is the hormone insulin essential for?

A
Blood absorption
B
Glucose monitoring
C
Energy production
D
Regulating
Energy production

What should a person do before taking insulin?

A
Check their heart rate and oxygen levels to prevent an overdose
B
Abstain from food and drink for 12 hours for an accurate dosage
C
Check their blood sugar to know how high or low it is to calculate the insulin dose
D
Be well rested and not engage in physical activities for up to 8 hours
Check their blood sugar to know how high or low it is to calculate the insulin dose

Which of these is NOT a symptom of high blood sugar?

A
Frequent urination
B
Dry skin
C
High fever
D
Thirst
High fever

What happens to the body when insulin is not available?

A
The body will use fat to produce energy
B
The body shuts down
C
The body readily absorbs glucose
D
The body is unable to regulate blood flow
The body will use fat to produce energy

Which of the following should a person with T1D always have with them?

A
A source of fast-acting sugar
B
A hat to shield from the sun
C
A bottle of water
D
Food with a balance of sugar and fat
A source of fast-acting sugar

Which of these is NOT a symptom of low blood sugar?

A
Clammy, cold skin
B
Feeling lightheaded or dizzy
C
Frequent urination
D
Feeling shaky
Frequent urination

Which disease are people with T1D more likely to develop?

A
Celiac disease
B
Pemphigus
C
Graves’ disease
D
Polymyositis
Celiac disease

How can insulin be administered?

A
By oral medication
B
Via injections
C
Infused through a small pump worn almost all of the time
D
B and C
B and C

What happens when more insulin is taken than the body needs?

A
T1D is cured
B
Hyperglycemia is induced
C
The amount of available glucose in the bloodstream increases
D
The amount of available glucose in the bloodstream drops
The amount of available glucose in the bloodstream drops

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Diabetes Type 2

Diabetes Type 2

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Type 2 diabetes?

A
Feeling thirsty all the time
B
Infections and sores that heal slowly
C
Headaches
D
Sweating
Sweating

How can Type 2 diabetes be treated?

A
Lifestyle modifications
B
Steroids
C
Therapy
D
It can’t be treated
Lifestyle modifications

What is characteristic of Type 2 diabetes?

A
When the body does not produce insulin at all
B
When the body does not produce enough insulin
C
When the body responds adequately to insulin
D
When the body produces more than enough insulin
When the body does not produce enough insulin

What does the body need insulin for?

A
To break down fat for energy
B
To help convert sugar to energy
C
To regulate weight
D
To cause hypoglycemia
To help convert sugar to energy

What do insulin injections help with?

A
Decreasing blood sugar levels
B
Building up sugar in the bloodstream
C
Absorbing glucose
D
Managing weight gain
Decreasing blood sugar levels

What foods should people with Type 2 diabetes avoid?

A
Salty food
B
Fatty food
C
Spicy food
D
Sugary food
Sugary food

What are some complications that can arise from Type 2 diabetes?

A
Stomach cancer
B
Kidney failure
C
Appendicitis
D
Acne
Kidney failure

What is the best way to prevent Type 2 diabetes?

A
There is no way to prevent diabetes type 2
B
Maintain a healthy body weight
C
Take a 30-minute walk daily
D
B and C
B and C

Approximately what percent of people with diabetes have T2D?

A
50%
B
70%
C
80%
D
90%
90%

What was Type 2 diabetes formerly known as?

A
Adult-onset diabetes
B
Late-stage diabetes
C
Gestational diabetes
D
Juvenile diabetes
Adult-onset diabetes

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Digestive System

Digestive System

Why does your stomach gurgle?

A
The noises come from an empty stomach
B
Talking while eating or eating too quickly create stomach noises
C
Stomach noises come from poor digestion especially from fructose and artificial sweeteners which are hard to digest
D
All of the above
All of the above

Who farts more? Men or Women?

A
Well isn't it obvious? Men
B
It's not what you think- women fart more
C
Men fart more but only as they age
D
Men fart just as much as women! It's just that they aren't embarrassed about it
Men fart just as much as women! It's just that they aren't embarrassed about it

How much saliva does an average person produce?

A
The average person produces 32 ounces or 910 grams a day
B
The average person produces 15 ounces or 425 grams a day
C
The average person produces 5 ounces or 140 grams a day
D
The average person produces 25 ounces or 710 grams a day
The average person produces 32 ounces or 910 grams a day

Whose farts smell worse men's , women's or children's?

A
Surprise! Women have higher sulfur levels, causing their farts to have a stronger odor
B
Men, of course, have smellier farts
C
Children's digestive systems are not as well developed which cause farts to smell worse
D
Everyone's farts smell the same
Surprise! Women have higher sulfur levels, causing their farts to have a stronger odor

How much food can a stomach hold?

A
Up to 2 1/4 pounds/ 1 kilo of food at a time
B
Up to 4 pounds/ 1.8 kilos of food at a time
C
The stomach begins to process and clear food immediately so there is not much storage
D
Up to 5 1/2 pounds/ 2 1/2 kilos of food at a time
Up to 4 pounds/ 1.8 kilos of food at a time

What type of weather increases hunger?

A
High humid weather, increases hunger to compensate for perspiration
B
The arrival of Autumn increases hunger- the body's way to get ready for chilly months
C
During winter, the body craves higher calorie, sweeter and fattier foods leading to excess fat storage- good for extra body warmth
D
There is no relation between increased hunger and weather.
During winter, the body craves higher calorie, sweeter and fattier foods leading to excess fat storage- good for extra body warmth

Is it healthier to eat only the egg whites or the whole egg?

A
Much healthier not eating the egg yolk- it's full of cholesterol
B
The yolk is responsible for half the protein content in an egg. Not eating the whole egg means losing out on all that protein
C
Any part of an egg is unhealthy. Better not to eat it
D
Makes no difference both the yolk and the whites have health benefits
The yolk is responsible for half the protein content in an egg. Not eating the whole egg means losing out on all that protein

What is the longest attack of hiccups ever recorded?

A
5 months
B
25 years
C
2 years
D
68 years
68 years

What do pregnant women eat that indicate they are carrying a baby girl?

A
Spicy foods
B
Lots of milk
C
Sweets especially chocolate
D
Eggs
Sweets especially chocolate

What do pregnant women eat that indicate they are carrying a baby boy?

A
Spicy foods
B
Lots of milk
C
Sweets especially chocolate
D
Eggs
Spicy foods

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Down Syndrome

Down Syndrome

A person with Down syndrome usually has how many chromosomes?

A
46
B
47
C
23
D
22
47

What is a typical feature of Down syndrome?

A
Upward slanting eyes
B
Poor muscle tone
C
Flat facial features
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which of the following is true about Down syndrome?

A
People with Down syndrome are always happy.
B
Some people with Down syndrome are of average intelligence.
C
People with Down syndrome cannot achieve life goals.
D
People with Down syndrome cannot play sports.
Some people with Down syndrome are of average intelligence.

What should you do when you communicate with a person with Down syndrome?

A
Be patient.
B
Show that you are comfortable with silent pauses.
C
Help complete his/her sentences.
D
Option 1) and 2)
Option 1) and 2)

What is the main risk factor for having a child with Down syndrome?

A
Smoking
B
Obesity
C
Advanced maternal age
D
Multiple pregnancies
Advanced maternal age

When working with people with Down syndrome, you should…

A
Give specific instructions.
B
Give them a different and exciting task every day.
C
Find out if they are comfortable with doing the assigned tasks.
D
Option 1) and 3)
Option 1) and 3)

People with Down syndrome have a higher risk of having what condition?

A
Obesity
B
Congenital heart defect
C
Thyroid disease
D
All of the above
All of the above

How can a pregnant woman ensure that her baby does not develop Down syndrome?

A
Nothing. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder present at conception.
B
By taking medication.
C
By undergoing radiation therapy.
D
By adopting a special diet.
Nothing. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder present at conception.

A person with Down syndrome cannot…

A
Go to a regular school.
B
Have a normal job.
C
Appreciate art, fashion and music.
D
None of the above
None of the above

Which of the following is most likely to be true about your co-worker who has Down syndrome?

A
He/she appreciates when you introduce him/her as your friend or co-worker “with Down syndrome”.
B
He/she works best with structure and routine.
C
He/she enjoys change and taking on daily challenges.
D
He/she will not be upset even if he/she is taken advantage of.
He/she works best with structure and routine.

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Endometriosis

Endometriosis

Which of the following statements best explain endometriosis?

A
A condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus
B
A condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the gut
C
A condition where endometrial tissue grows inside the small intestine
D
A condition where endometrial tissue grows inside the colon
A condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus

What is NOT a common symptom of endometriosis?

A
Pelvic Pain
B
Excessive bleeding
C
Muscle weakness
D
Infertility
Muscle weakness

What places you at a greater risk of developing endometriosis?

A
High body mass index
B
Low body mass index
C
Low levels of estrogens
D
Pregnancy
Low body mass index

In what way(s) can endometriosis negatively impact your life?

A
Social isolation
B
Infertility
C
Decline in mental health
D
All of the above
All of the above

How can endometriosis be treated?

A
Medication and physical therapy
B
Medication and hormone therapy
C
Medication, hormone therapy or surgery
D
Medication, physical therapy or surgery
Medication, hormone therapy or surgery

How does hormone therapy help ease the pain from endometriosis?

A
Causes endometrial implants to thicken
B
Slows the growth of endometrial tissue
C
Increases the growth of endometrial tissue
D
Stops the production of hormones
Slows the growth of endometrial tissue

What is NOT true about a laparoscopy procedure?

A
The procedure can be used to identify the extent of the condition
B
Endometrial tissue is removed
C
It is done under local anesthesia
D
An incision is made near the navel
It is done under local anesthesia

What else can be done to help manage the pain?

A
Acupuncture
B
Yoga
C
Massage
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Eye Care

Eye Care

Contact lenses are suitable for older adults

A
True
B
False
True

It is okay to purchase decorative lenses without a prescription

A
True
B
False
False

Smoking has an impact on my eye health

A
True
B
False
True

It is not safe to sleep with contact lenses on

A
True
B
False
True

It is ok to wear your contact lenses when swimming, or showering

A
True
B
False
False

Contact lens cases should be cleaned regularly with water

A
True
B
False
False

Contact lens solution can be transferred from one container to another container

A
True
B
False
False

Contact lens cases can be kept for 6 months

A
True
B
False
False

Contact lenses can’t be shared by different people

A
True
B
False
True

Different contact lens solutions should not be mixed

A
True
B
False
True

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Fatty Liver

Fatty Liver

Who can get Fatty Liver?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
Only children
B
Mostly adults aged 25 to 45
C
The elderly
D
Virtually anyone
Virtually anyone

Which is a risk factor for NAFLD?

A
Underactive thyroid
B
Type 2 Diabetes
C
Obesity, especially around the stomach
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which of the following is not used in diagnosing Fatty Liver?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
A review of your medical history
B
Medical tests like a blood test or a CT scan
C
A fitness test
D
A liver biopsy
A fitness test

What are the symptoms of Fatty Liver?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
Sharp, shooting pains in the abdomen
B
Nausea and fainting
C
Sustained high fever
D
There are typically no symptoms
There are typically no symptoms

What is a recommended diet for someone with risk factors?

A
A Mediterranean diet
B
A Paleo diet
C
A strictly plant-based diet
D
A dairy-free diet
A Mediterranean diet

What is the recommended weight loss to reduce inflammation?

A
5 - 10%
B
10 - 15%
C
15 - 20%
D
20 - 25%
5 - 10%

What should you be aware of when treating Fatty Liver?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
That the condition is volatile
B
That rapid weight loss can actually contribute to NAFLD
C
That treatment plans are very expensive
D
That you have to undergo extended periods of abstaining from food
That rapid weight loss can actually contribute to NAFLD

How is Fatty Liver treated?

(non-alcoholic – NAFLD)

A
There is no widely accepted medical treatment
B
Following an intense cardio regimen, 3 times a day
C
Surgery
D
Minimizing the underlying risk factors by safely increasing activity levels and eating healthy
Minimizing the underlying risk factors by safely increasing activity levels and eating healthy

What is cirrhosis?

A
A condition that attempts to repair liver cells
B
A condition that occurs when the fat percentage of the liver is above 20%
C
A condition that occurs when excessive scarring of the liver prevents healthy cells from regenerating
D
A condition that prevents excessive scarring of the liver from occurring
A condition that occurs when excessive scarring of the liver prevents healthy cells from regenerating

What happens when cirrhosis progresses?

A
Liver failure occurs, and a transplant is necessary
B
It goes away on its own after awhile
C
There is no treatment
D
The liver is ruptured, causing excessive internal bleeding
Liver failure occurs, and a transplant is necessary

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Ferritin

Ferritin

Which is not a symptom of low ferritin levels?

A
Unexplained fatigue
B
Shortness of breath
C
Chronic diarrhea
D
All of the above
Chronic diarrhea

High ferritin levels may be caused by…

A
Type 2 diabetes
B
Hepatitis
C
Menstruation
D
a) and b) only
a) and b) only

What is hemochromatosis?

A
An eating disorder
B
A disorder that prevents blood from clotting
C
A disorder in which too much iron builds up in the body
D
A disorder that reduces the body’s iron storage capacity
A disorder in which too much iron builds up in the body

What is a ferritin test used for?

A
To measure the amount of stored iron in the body
B
To measure blood glucose levels
C
To measure white blood cell count
D
None of the above
To measure the amount of stored iron in the body

Low ferritin levels may be caused by…

A
Anemia
B
Excessive menstrual bleeding
C
Stomach conditions that affect intestinal absorption
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which is not a source of heme iron?

A
Beef
B
Lentils
C
Apricot
D
b) and c) only
b) and c) only

What is true about non-heme iron?

A
It is absorbed more efficiently than heme iron
B
It comes from plant sources in the diet
C
It comes from animal proteins in the diet
D
All of the above
It comes from plant sources in the diet

What food enhances the body's ability to absorb more iron?

A
Meat
B
Fish
C
Poultry
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Flu

Flu

Which virus causes flu ?

A
Rota Virus
B
Ebola Virus
C
Influenza Virus
D
Herpes Virus
Influenza Virus

Flu virus spreads when a sick person

A
Talks
B
Sneezes
C
Coughs
D
All of the above
All of the above

What are some of the ways you can boost your immune system for the cold and flu season?

A
Balanced diet with vitamin-rich foods such as fruits and dark leafy greens
B
Not getting enough sleep everyday
C
Vitamin C and Zinc supplements
D
1 and 3
1 and 3

How often do you need to take the flu vaccine?

A
Only once in a lifetime
B
Every year
C
Every 5 years
D
Every 10 years
Every year

What can you do to prevent flu?

A
Minimise contact with the sick
B
Wash your hands with soap often and avoid touching face
C
Get yearly flu jab
D
All the above
All the above

Seasonal flu shots are not suitable for people with

A
An allergy to chicken eggs
B
Severe reaction to a flu vaccination in the past
C
Infants younger than 6 months of age
D
2 and 3
2 and 3

What are the symptoms of flu ?

A
Headache, Fatigue
B
Fever
C
Chest discomfort, cough
D
All the above
All the above

If flu is left untreated, what are the possible complications?

A
Pneumonia
B
Bronchitis
C
Ear Infection
D
All of the above
All of the above

Symptoms that need immediate medical attention when you have flu?

A
Fever with rash
B
Short of breath and/or develop chest pain
C
Severe or persistent vomiting
D
All of the above
All of the above

How to speed up your recovery from flu?

A
Stay at home and rest
B
Antivirals
C
Stay hydrated / Drink chicken soup
D
All the above
All the above

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Gut Health

Gut Health

Our gut microbiome thrives on:

A
High fiber foods such as spinach or kale
B
Fermented foods such as such as kimchi, sauerkraut or kombucha
C
Live bacteria-containing yogurt
D
All of the above
All of the above

What are some factors that determine the mix and composition of the microbiome?

A
Supplements like prebiotics and probiotics
B
C-section birth and supplements
C
Vagina birth, physical environment and supplements
D
Vagina birth, physical environment and exercise
Vagina birth, physical environment and supplements

Which is NOT one of the functions of the gut microbiome?

A
Increasing the production of IgA (a type of protein)
B
Storing calcium
C
Preventing insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes
D
Producing hormones that determine how the body stores fat
Storing calcium

What contributes to poor gut health?

A
Lifestyle and bowel habits
B
Genetic disorders
C
Abdominal surgery
D
All of the above
All of the above

What is NOT true about probiotics?

A
They can be stored in capsules
B
They are actual living bacteria
C
They contain parts of the fibrous foods we eat
D
All of the above
They contain parts of the fibrous foods we eat

How do infants develop their microbiome?

A
They are born with all their microbiome
B
Microbes are transferred from the mother to newborn during vagina birth
C
Microbes are transferred from the mother to newborn during C-section birth
D
From starting on formula immediately after birth
Microbes are transferred from the mother to newborn during vagina birth

How does antibiotic use affect the gut microbiome?

A
It wipes out part of your microbiome and some of these changes are permanent
B
It wipes out part of your microbiome and these changes are temporary
C
It wipes out the bad bacteria in your microbiome
D
It wipes out the good bacteria in your microbiome
It wipes out part of your microbiome and some of these changes are permanent

What is true about your gut microbiome?

A
It thrives on digestible fiber
B
It thrives on indigestible fiber
C
It thrives on sodium
D
It thrives on glucose
It thrives on indigestible fiber

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Hair

Hair

Who is more likely to get ingrown hairs?

A
People with curly or coarse hair
B
People with straight hair
C
People with dark hair
D
People with blond hair
People with curly or coarse hair

Does shaving create ingrown hairs?

A
No, plucking hair with tweezers creates more ingrown hairs
B
No, oily skin makes ingrown hair
C
No, ingrown hairs occur only in adolescence
D
Yes, ingrown hairs are more likely to occur in areas that are shaved more frequently.
Yes, ingrown hairs are more likely to occur in areas that are shaved more frequently.

Does stress make dandruff worse?

A
Yes, stress can raise blood pressure thereby creating a drier scalp which causes dandruff
B
Yes, stress impairs your immune system and can result in dandruff flare-ups
C
No, stress has no effect on dandruff
D
Yes, stress implies mental distress which can lead to dandruff
Yes, stress impairs your immune system and can result in dandruff flare-ups

Are there natural remedies for getting rid of lice?

A
No, only over-the-counter topical medication like permethrin or pyrethrin with additives can kill lice and their eggs
B
Yes, Applying mayonaise to the whole head and letting it sit in for 30 minutes
C
Yes, A mixture of tea tree essential oil, anise essential oil and ylang ylang essential oil will kill lice
D
2 and 3
2 and 3

Do hair and nails keep growing after you die?

A
Yes, haven't you seen any horror pictures
B
No, hair and nails fall right off after you die
C
No, after death, skin dries and pulls away from nails and hair. This makes them appear to grow when they really aren't
D
Yes, the cells in hair and nails take extra time to stop functioning
No, after death, skin dries and pulls away from nails and hair. This makes them appear to grow when they really aren't

Does blonde hair sometimes turn green from a pool?

A
No, you must get your eyes checked
B
Yes, the chlorine damages hair cuticles, causing the copper present in pool water to create a green hair color
C
Yes, on badly dyed hair
D
Yes, it’s the reflection of the sunlight onto hair that changes the color
Yes, the chlorine damages hair cuticles, causing the copper present in pool water to create a green hair color

Can onion juice help treat hair-loss?

A
Yes, the acid from the onion juice stimulates hair growth
B
Yes, the membranes of the onion contain hair growth properties
C
Yes, onion juice is rich in sulfar and can be effective in treating spot baldness. 87% of men tested found that it helped
D
No, and it will make you stinky
Yes, onion juice is rich in sulfar and can be effective in treating spot baldness. 87% of men tested found that it helped

How is the baldness trait passed down ?

A
Baldness is not an inherited trait
B
The baldness trait is inherited from mothers
C
The baldness trait is inherited from fathers
D
The baldness trait is inherited from either parent
The baldness trait is inherited from either parent

Is the amount of anesthesia you need influenced by hair color?

A
Yes! Redheads need 20% more anesthesia to be unconscious
B
Yes! Blonds need 25% more anesthesia to be unconscious
C
Yes, prematurely white haired patients need 20% more anesthesia to be unconscious
D
No, hair color has no influence on the amount of anesthesia needed to become unconscious.
Yes! Redheads need 20% more anesthesia to be unconscious

Does hair grow faster if regularly cut?

A
Yes, the hair folicle grows more quickly the more it is cut
B
No! Your hair does not have nerve endings so it does effect hair growth
C
Yes! Haven't you learned this from your hair stylist
D
Yes! Split ends curtail hair growth, so it is important to cut these off
No! Your hair does not have nerve endings so it does effect hair growth

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Hepatitis

Hepatitis

Hepatitis A, B, C can be prevented by getting vaccinated.

A
True
B
False
False

Pregnant women should not take the Hepatitis A vaccine.

A
True
B
False
False

Adults who have had Hepatitis A can donate blood.

A
True
B
False
False

Hepatitis B can be transmitted via a shared toothbrush.

A
True
B
False
True

Women with Hepatitis B can breast feed.

A
True
B
False
True

Hepatitis B is curable.

A
True
B
False
False

Only children can be vaccinated against Hepatitis B.

A
True
B
False
False

A patient can get Hepatitis A multiple times

A
True
B
False
False

Many people with Hepatitis B experience no symptoms.

A
True
B
False
True

Hepatitis A is spread from eating food or water that has been contaminated by the feces of an infected person.

A
True
B
False
True

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HPV

HPV

What is HPV (Human Papillomavirus)?

A
A disease that only affects men
B
A common sexually transmitted infection
C
A psychological condition
D
A stomach virus
A common sexually transmitted infection

How is HPV transmitted?

A
Skin-to-skin contact
B
Anal sex
C
Oral sex
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which of these health conditions is not caused by HPV?

A
Genital warts
B
Pneumonia
C
Anal cancer
D
Cervical cancer
Pneumonia

Who are at a higher risk of getting infected by HPV?

A
Smokers
B
Those who have gotten the HPV vaccination
C
Those who are not sexually active
D
Women who have undergone menopause
Smokers

Which type of cancer is not associated with HPV?

A
Oropharyngeal cancer
B
Penile Cancer
C
Anal Cancer
D
Brain Cancer
Brain Cancer

Which of these statements regarding symptoms of HPV is FALSE?

A
Symptoms of HPV can take months or years to appear
B
Most people with HPV never develop symptoms or health problems
C
Symptoms are immediate
D
HPV can be transmitted even if the infected person has no symptoms
Symptoms are immediate

Which of these is ineffective in protecting against HPV?

A
Getting vaccinated before becoming sexually active
B
Abstaining from sex
C
Correct use of latex condoms
D
Having oral sex instead of vaginal sex
Having oral sex instead of vaginal sex

When is it recommended to take the HPV vaccine?

A
At 11 and 12 years old
B
At birth
C
When one becomes sexually active
D
After menopause
At 11 and 12 years old

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HPV Related Cancers

HPV Related Cancers

Which of these cancers is related to HPV?

A
Penile Cancer
B
Oropharyngeal Cancer
C
Cervical Cancer
D
All of the above
All of the above

What percent of sexually active people is estimated to have been exposed to HPV?

A
10%
B
90%
C
50%
D
30%
90%

Which HPV-related cancer can be screened for as a preventive measure?

A
Cervical cancer
B
Vaginal cancer
C
Oral cancer
D
Vulvar cancer
Cervical cancer

Which of these steps does NOT help in early detection of cervical cancer?

A
Taking a PAP test every year.
B
Taking both PAP test and HPV test routinely
C
No screening is necessary
D
Taking the HPV test
No screening is necessary

Which of these is a risk factor for HPV-related cancers?

A
A weak immune system
B
Having a previous HPV infection
C
Use of tobacco
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which of these is NOT a symptom of oropharyngeal cancer?

A
Difficulty swallowing
B
Pain in the jaw
C
Core sores
D
Swollen lymph nodes
Core sores

Which of these statements is false about the HPV vaccine?

A
It can prevent common forms of HPV-related cancer
B
Condom use during sex is no longer required after being vaccinated
C
It is equally important for both males and females to be vaccinated.
D
Vaccination helps to break the chain of transmission
Condom use during sex is no longer required after being vaccinated

Which of these groups of people is the HPV vaccine not recommended for?

A
Those above 45 years of age
B
Those undergoing puberty
C
Those who are not sexually active
D
Men and women with high risk of HPV
Those above 45 years of age

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Hygiene

Hygiene

Which is an example of a foodborne disease?

A
Mastoiditis
B
Paronychia
C
Norovirus
D
Rhinorrhea
Norovirus

How many people do foodborne illnesses affect globally every year?

A
1 in every 5
B
1 in every 10
C
1 in every 20
D
1 in every 50
1 in every 10

Where is the best place to defrost frozen foods?

A
Under warm running water
B
On the counter top, in room temperature
C
Submerged in cold water
D
On a plate in the refrigerator
On a plate in the refrigerator

Washing your hands before handling food reduces the chance of getting diarrhea by ______?

A
29%
B
31%
C
47%
D
54%
31%

To thoroughly wash hands, you should lather for at least ________.

A
10 seconds
B
20 seconds
C
30 seconds
D
40 seconds
20 seconds

Which of these foods need to be washed before cutting?

A
Mushrooms
B
Sirloin steak
C
Seabass
D
Honeydew
Honeydew

Cooked chicken needs to reach an internal temperature of ______ before being safe to eat.

A
145°C
B
155°C
C
160°C
D
175°C
160°C

What should you do before safely consuming leftover marinade?

A
It can’t be eaten, you should throw it away
B
You don’t have to do anything, it can be eaten as is
C
Boil it before serving to kill the bacteria
D
Serve it in a separate bowl
Boil it before serving to kill the bacteria

When is it safe to refreeze previously frozen food?

A
After letting it slowly thaw on a dish in the refrigerator
B
More than 5 hours after buying it from the supermarket
C
After thawing the frozen food under running water
D
It’s never safe to refreeze previously frozen food
More than 5 hours after buying it from the supermarket

To avoid food poisoning while eating out, what should you look out for in restaurants?

A
Strong cooking smells from the kitchen
B
The kitchen staff is properly attired
C
A clean kitchen
D
B and C
B and C

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Hypertension

Hypertension

What is another name for hypertension?

A
High blood glucose level
B
High blood pressure
C
Seizure
D
Muscle cramp
High blood pressure

Which of the following is the most desirable blood pressure?

A
Less than 120/80 mmHg
B
129/80 mmHg
C
130/70 mmHg
D
130/80 mmHg
Less than 120/80 mmHg

The two measurements of blood pressure determine…

A
The pressure in your blood vessels when your heart beats.
B
The pressure in your blood vessels when your heart rests between beats.
C
If you have low, normal or high blood pressure.
D
All of the above.
All of the above.

According to American Heart Association, blood pressure is considered high when it is above…

A
110/80 mmHg
B
110/70mmHg
C
130/80 mmHg
D
130/70 mmHg
130/80 mmHg

Which of the following is not a risk factor for hypertension?

A
Drinking excess amounts of alcohol.
B
Regular fish consumption.
C
High dietary sodium intake.
D
Smoking.
Regular fish consumption.

Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to…

A
Stroke
B
Down syndrome
C
Huntington’s disease
D
Option 1) and 2)
Stroke

Which of the following is a preventive measure for hypertension?

A
Getting regular exercise.
B
Eating a healthy diet.
C
Limiting alcohol consumption.
D
All of the above.
All of the above.

Which of the following statements is false?

A
Reducing salt consumption can help to reduce risk of hypertension.
B
If both your parents have hypertension, you will also develop hypertension.
C
Children can also develop hypertension.
D
If you are overweight, you are more likely to develop hypertension.
If both your parents have hypertension, you will also develop hypertension.

What is a treatment for hypertension?

A
Undergoing dialysis
B
Making healthy lifestyle changes
C
Taking medication
D
Option 2) and 3)
Option 2) and 3)

What is a common symptom of hypertension?

A
Hypertension typically does not give rise to any symptoms.
B
Sweaty palms.
C
Weight gain.
D
Fever.
Hypertension typically does not give rise to any symptoms.

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Immunization

Immunization

What is immunization?

A
When a person is born immune to all infectious diseases
B
When a person is made immune or resistant to an infectious disease, typically through a vaccine
C
When a shot given under the skin is absorbed into the bloodstream
D
The digestive juices in the stomach break it down and the medicine passes into the bloodstream
When a person is made immune or resistant to an infectious disease, typically through a vaccine

How do vaccines work?

A
By targeting and eliminating viruses through the blood stream
B
By killing all the germs in the vicinity of the injection
C
By altering the brain to reject any pathogens from entering the body
D
By stimulating the body’s own immune system to protect the person against subsequent infection or disease
By stimulating the body’s own immune system to protect the person against subsequent infection or disease

According to WHO, there has been a _____ increase in measles cases across 183 countries from January 2018 to January 2019.

A
30%
B
40%
C
50%
D
60%
50%

Which of these do live vaccines help protect against?

A
Rabies
B
Hepatitis A
C
Chickenpox
D
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Chickenpox

What has led to the rise of anti-vaccination sentiments?

A
Misinformation
B
Social media
C
Influence from celebrity figures
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which disease, once almost eradicated, is now a making a comeback?

A
Smallpox
B
Measles
C
Greyscale
D
Lycanthropy
Measles

Why is immunization beneficial?

A
Prevents between 2 and 3 million deaths per year
B
Is one of the most cost-effective health investments
C
Allows effective delivery through outreach activities
D
All of the above
All of the above

If the people around me are vaccinated, why do I have to get vaccinated as well?

A
If the optimum rates of immunization are not maintained, the diseases prevented by vaccination will return
B
Some people are more susceptible to diseases than others
C
Airborne diseases can still spread
D
Some diseases thrive especially in cleaner environments
If the optimum rates of immunization are not maintained, the diseases prevented by vaccination will return

What percentage of a population needs to be immunized before herd immunity occurs?

A
60%
B
70%
C
80%
D
90%
90%

Which of these vaccinations would you probably need before traveling overseas?

A
Yellow fever
B
Typhoid fever
C
Cholera
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Lactose Intolerance

Lactose Intolerance

Lactose intolerance is defined as…

A
The body's inability to digest lactose
B
A condition whereby the body overproduces lactase
C
A temporary digestive problem
D
None of the above
The body's inability to digest lactose

What is true about lactose intolerance?

A
It is another term for 'milk allergy'
B
There is only one type of lactose intolerance
C
Some babies are born lactose intolerant
D
All of the above
Some babies are born lactose intolerant

Common symptom(s) of lactose intolerance include:

A
Acid reflux
B
Diarrhea
C
Nausea
D
b) and c) only
b) and c) only

Which is not a common risk factor for lactose intolerance?

A
Premature birth
B
Acute pancreatitis
C
Increasing age
D
Ethnicity
Acute pancreatitis

Some ways to minimize the symptoms of lactose intolerance include:

A
Limiting dairy products and taking more probiotics
B
Experimenting with an assortment of dairy products
C
Taking lactase enzyme tablets or drops
D
All of the above
All of the above

What are some tips for lactose intolerant individuals?

A
Opt for smaller servings of dairy
B
Try eating hard cheeses like Swiss or cheddar
C
Go lactose-free
D
All of the above
All of the above

What foods commonly contain lactose?

A
Cakes and biscuits
B
Bean curd
C
Peanut butter
D
All of the above
Cakes and biscuits

What is not true about lactose intolerance?

A
It can develop at any age
B
It is often inherited
C
It has a relatively higher prevalence among young children
D
Different individuals may experience different symptoms
It has a relatively higher prevalence among young children

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Menopause

Menopause

How can women try to prevent hot flashes?

A
Drink ice water
B
Exercise
C
Take certain medications- but ask your doctor
D
All of the above
All of the above

What is the average age when women start menopause?

A
65
B
45
C
51
D
60
51

What is a symptom of menopause?

A
Hot Flashes
B
Muscle pain
C
Mood Swings
D
All of the above
All of the above

Why does menopause affect bones?

A
Declining estrogen levels cause a decrease in bone density
B
Older women consume less calcium
C
No one likes milk so this catches up when you age
D
As you age, you become less active which harms the bones
Declining estrogen levels cause a decrease in bone density

Is heart disease and menopause linked?

A
Yes, lower estrogen levels seem to play a factor
B
No, menopause does not cause heart disease
C
Yes, the end of menstruation affects blood circulation
D
1 and 3
Yes, lower estrogen levels seem to play a factor

In an American study, which group was found to have less menopausal symptoms?

A
Hispanics
B
Asian-Americans
C
Caucasians
D
African- Americans
Asian-Americans

What is the name of the first stage of menopause?

A
perimenopause
B
paramenopause
C
premenopause
D
postpartum
perimenopause

If menstruation starts early does that influence the age when menopause begins?

A
No, everyone goes into menopause at around the same time
B
Yes, women who start menstruation before 12 years, will begin menopause earlier
C
No, the time that you start menopause is dependent on your diet
D
No, early menopause is influenced by your environment
Yes, women who start menstruation before 12 years, will begin menopause earlier

Why do women tend to gain weight during menopause?

A
Appetites grow in menopause
B
Older women tend to do less exercise
C
With hormonal imbalance, the body begins to store fat
D
As women get older, they are more hungry
With hormonal imbalance, the body begins to store fat

What happens during perimenopause?

A
Lighter periods
B
Uncontrolable laughter
C
More calm demeanor
D
Severe menstrual pain
Lighter periods

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Mosquito-Borne Diseases

Mosquito-Borne Diseases

What is true about mosquito-borne diseases?

A
They are caused by viruses or parasites
B
They tend to occur in warmer climates
C
They can be fatal
D
All of the above
All of the above

Why are mosquitoes known as ‘disease vectors’?

A
They carry viruses or parasites from one host to another
B
They naturally contain disease-causing viruses in their bodies
C
They thrive in polluted environments
D
a) and c) only
They carry viruses or parasites from one host to another

Who is at risk for developing more serious disease?

A
Younger children
B
Individuals with pre-existing health conditions
C
Pregnant women and their unborn infants
D
All of the above
All of the above

What is a risk factor for malaria?

A
Sharing hypodermic needles
B
Organ transplantation
C
Traveling to endemic areas
D
All of the above
All of the above

What is not true about malaria?

A
Some types of malaria can stay dormant in the liver for up to 4 years
B
Malaria is caused by a parasite
C
Malaria is transmitted by the Aedes mosquito
D
All of the above
Malaria is transmitted by the Aedes mosquito

Complications from zika during pregnancy include…

A
Miscarriage
B
Stillbirth
C
Congenital malformations
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which is not a common symptom of severe dengue?

A
Persistent vomiting
B
Heartburn
C
Cold or clammy skin
D
Blood in vomit, urine or stools
Heartburn

What can you do to reduce your chances of getting a mosquito-borne disease?

A
Remove all sources of stagnant water
B
Use mosquito repellent
C
Wear tight-fitting clothing
D
a) and b) only
a) and b) only

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Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis

What kind of disease is osteoporosis?

A
Skin Disease
B
Bone disease
C
Sexually transmitted disease
D
Heart Disease
Bone disease

What causes osteoporosis?

A
The body loses too much bone
B
The body makes too little bone
C
Bones lose density and mass
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which group of people is more likely to develop osteoporosis?

A
Women over 50
B
Young children
C
Teenagers
D
Men in their 30s
Women over 50

What are some symptoms of osteoporosis?

A
Frequent headaches and dizzy spells
B
Height decrease and stooped posture over time
C
Pain in eyes and obscured vision
D
Loss of hair
Height decrease and stooped posture over time

Which of these is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?

A
Menopause
B
Low body weight
C
A history of broken bones
D
A history of joint dislocations
A history of joint dislocations

Which of these lifestyle factors does NOT increase the risk of osteoporosis?

A
Smoking
B
Consuming more than two alcoholic drinks daily
C
Consuming too much calcium
D
A sedentary lifestyle
Consuming too much calcium

How can you improve overall bone health?

A
Sleeping and waking up early
B
Weight-bearing exercises
C
Consuming alcohol occasionally
D
Drinking more water
Weight-bearing exercises

Which of these is NOT a treatment or prevention for osteoporosis?

A
Having sufficient sleep
B
Taking a bone density test
C
Getting an adequate daily amount of calcium and Vitamin D
D
Limiting alcohol intake and not smoking
Having sufficient sleep

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Ovarian Cancer

Ovarian Cancer

Ovarian cancer is the _____ most common cancer among women.

A
3rd
B
4th
C
8th
D
18th
8th

Ovarian cancer is the _____ most common cancer in the world.

A
10th
B
12th
C
15th
D
18th
18th

Where does ovarian cancer typically begin?

A
In the vagina
B
In the cervix
C
In the fallopian tubes or ovaries
D
All of the above
All of the above

What are the three main types of ovarian cancer?

A
Epithelial, stromal, and germ cell
B
Exocrine, endocrine, and islet cell
C
Adenocarcinoma, stromal, and squamous cell
D
Epithelial, exocrine, and islet cell
Epithelial, stromal, and germ cell

Which of the following is a risk factor of ovarian cancer?

A
Being a woman aged 55 and above
B
Being post-menopausal
C
Having a personal history of breast, ovarian, colorectal, or endometrial cancer
D
All of the above
All of the above

How can a person reduce their risk for developing ovarian cancer?

A
Having at least one full-term pregnancy
B
Removing the ovaries and fallopian tubes
C
Taking oral contraceptives
D
All of the above
All of the above

Which of these can be a symptom of ovarian cancer?

A
Having a bloated or upset stomach
B
Having nausea or indigestion
C
Having pelvic or abdominal pain
D
All of the above
All of the above

How can genetic testing help?

A
It can prevent the tumors from forming
B
It can identify inherited genetic mutations associated with a higher risk of ovarian cancer
C
It can eliminate inherited genetic mutations
D
It can completely cure the cancer
It can identify inherited genetic mutations associated with a higher risk of ovarian cancer

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Panic Attacks

Panic Attacks

Panic attacks…

A
Typically begin with some sort of warning
B
Typically begin without warning and last for about 5-20 minutes
C
Will only occur when one is feeling anxious about something
D
All of the above
Typically begin without warning and last for about 5-20 minutes

What is true about panic attacks?

A
They can get worse without treatment
B
They are often dangerous
C
They only occur in individuals with hypertension
D
All of the above
They can get worse without treatment

Which is not a common symptom of panic attacks?

A
Numbness or tingling
B
Shortness of breath
C
Joint pain
D
Nausea
Joint pain

What contributes to an increased risk of developing panic attacks?

A
Family history
B
Hypertension
C
Excessive caffeine intake
D
a) and c) only
a) and c) only

Panic attacks may be linked to…

A
Avoidance of social situations
B
Problems at work or school
C
Alcohol or substance misuse
D
All of the above
All of the above

The main treatment options for panic attacks are...

A
Psychotherapy and exercise
B
Psychotherapy and medication
C
Physiotherapy and exercise
D
Physiotherapy and medication
Psychotherapy and medication

To help rule out other conditions, ______________ may be required.

A
A physical exam
B
An electrocardiogram (ECG)
C
Endoscopy
D
a) and b) only
a) and b) only

To reduce panic-related symptoms, one can...

A
Take slow, deep breaths
B
Practice mindfulness
C
Use relaxation techniques
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Parkinson's Disease

Parkinson's Disease

Parkinson’s disease is a…

A
Hereditary condition
B
Autoimmune disease
C
Neurological disorder
D
Musculoskeletal disorder
Neurological disorder

Parkinson’s disease is associated with a shortage of which chemical in the brain?

A
Dopamine
B
Serotonin
C
Noradrenaline
D
Endorphins
Dopamine

What is the average age for onset of Parkinson’s disease?

A
40 years old
B
50 years old
C
60 years old
D
70 years old
60 years old

Which of the following is recognized as an initial cardinal sign present in Parkinson disease?

A
Bradykinesia or slowness of movement
B
Rigidity
C
Tremor
D
All of the above
All of the above

How many stages of Parkinson’s disease are there?

A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
5

Which of the following is not a treatment for symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A
Hormone therapy
B
Deep brain stimulation
C
Medication
D
Physical, occupational and speech therapy
Hormone therapy

Parkinson’s disease is more common in…

A
Men
B
Women
C
People age 40 and younger
D
Parkinson’s is not common in any particular age group or gender
Men

What is the known cause of Parkinson’s disease?

A
Genetics
B
Exposure to toxins
C
Both 1) and 2)
D
There is no known cause.
There is no known cause.

Parkinson’s disease is commonly diagnosed through...

A
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
B
Clinical Diagnosis
C
Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
D
Biopsy
Clinical Diagnosis

Which of these famous leaders suffered from Parkinson's disease?

A
Pope John Paul 11
B
Pierre Elliott Trudeau
C
Francisco Franco
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Pneumonia

Pneumonia

Which organ does pneumonia mainly affect?

A
Heart
B
Lungs
C
Kidneys
D
Skin
Lungs

Common symptoms of pneumonia include:

A
Cough
B
Difficulty Breathing
C
Fatigue
D
All of the above
All of the above

How severe is pneumonia?

A
Mild
B
Severe
C
Life threatening
D
Any of the above
Any of the above

Which of the following is used to diagnose pneumonia?

A
MRI
B
Pap Test
C
Chest x-ray
D
Urine Test
Chest x-ray

Which mental state is most associated with pneumonia?

A
Anxiety
B
Anger
C
Happiness
D
Confusion or delirium
Confusion or delirium

Which is NOT a safe or effective treatment for pneumonia?

A
Respiration therapy
B
Supportive therapy
C
Antibiotic treatment prescribed by doctors
D
Over the counter medication prescribed by pharmacists
Over the counter medication prescribed by pharmacists

What can you do to reduce your chances of developing pneumonia?

A
Good nutrition and sufficient sleep
B
Vaccinations and regular medical check ups
C
Washing hands frequently or using alcohol-based sanitizer
D
All of the above
All of the above

Who is more prone to developing pneumonia?

A
People above 65 years
B
Young children and babies
C
People with existing lung disease or who smoke
D
All of the above
All of the above

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Pregnancy

Pregnancy

Typically, how often does a woman release an egg?

A
Once every 7 days
B
Once every 14 days
C
Once every 28 days
D
Once every 56 days
Once every 28 days

How long is a woman’s window of fertility?

A
Approximately 2 days long
B
Approximately 4 days long
C
Approximately 6 days long
D
Approximately 8 days long
Approximately 6 days long

Which of these is NOT a way to track ovulation?

A
Calendar
B
Basal temperature
C
Ovulation predictor kit
D
Dry mouth
Dry mouth

Why should you consider having pre-conception genetic testing?

A
To know if the parents carry specific genes for certain diseases that can be passed down to the child
B
A healthier egg is developed, making the woman more fertile
C
The man’s sperm is strengthened, and he becomes more fertile
D
B & C
To know if the parents carry specific genes for certain diseases that can be passed down to the child